Introduction- the “Four Witnesses” to Jesus

What does the New Testament say about Jesus? This is a summary and simple exegesis of a face value reading of the relevant texts, the prima fasciae scriptural basis for the claim of Jesus’ Divinity. The Jerome summarizes Jesus’ claims in terms of the “four witnesses” (p. 1381,1402, 1410), I need to transcribe some of that, kindly bear with.

“The…overlaying structure is focussed on a wider range of “witnesses” (proofs) that Jesus was who he said he was. These witnesses are presented to us in a comprehensive listing in 5:31-40. Here it is made clear that true belief is Jesus is based on a variety of witnesses to Jesus…” (p.1381)

The Jerome titles the section on chapter 5: 20- 23 “a discourse describing the two powers of Jesus and the witnesses to him” and states:

“…the discourse of chapter 5 is the single most important discourse of the gospel. In it we get the first description of the identity of Jesus and of Jesus is relation to the father. This is the very heart of the gospels portrayal of Jesus (…) The Father loves the Son and shows him all that he himself does. There’s nothing the Father has that he has not given to the Son! Jesus receives both the power to give life and the power to judge, the powers that are distinctive of the Father. What Jesus says next seemingly arrogant beyond measure: all are to honour the Son just as they honor the Father…” (p.1400). The Jerome continues “but naturally the question would arise: you’re witnessing yourself and therefore there is no real justification for your claims (…) and so (Jesus) explains that in fact there are four witnesses to his claims: this first is the witness of John the Baptist. At the beginning of the gospel open brackets 1 colour 9 to 51 close brackets, we had seen Jones witness and how it brought some of his disciples to believe in Jesus. Here in chapter 5 juice confirms that the witnesses of John the Baptist was true. But in spite of that Jesus does not rely on human witness (…) the second witness to Jesus is his works as we have seen the gulf spill uses the word “work” for miracles or alongside the term “sign”. Jesus explains that his works were given to him by the father to bring to completion. These works witness that the father has sent jesus. The third witness to Jesus is his word. Jesus reminds just listeners that no one has ever seen God heard his voice directly, but they do have a chance to have the word of God within themselves. But they reject the word of God the cause they do not accept the word of Jesus, who speaks, not his own word but the word of God. The fourth witness is the scriptures. Once again Jesus explains that his listeners believe that they find eternal life through the Scriptures and the Scriptures do indeed witness to Jesus, but those who are listening do not want to come to Jesus and so to have eternal life…. These verses 31 to 40 are what we might call a paradigmatic listing of these witnesses to Jesus. And we can begin to see how important they will be for the structure of the gospel! For example as we reflect on these four witnesses we can gain better insight into how the author structure his presentation of the disciples’ believe at the beginning of the ministry. There the disciples are presented as models of belief. They responded to the witness of John the Baptist (1:19-51) they believed in the sign at Cana and saw Jesus’ glory. And after his resurrection they came to see that both his word and the Scriptures witness to him- and they believed (…) After chapter 5 there will be three major discourses of Jesus with the religious authorities (Jews): (…) each of these discourses will elaborate one of the witnesses to Jesus (…) in chapter 6:30-59 we will see an example of how scripture witnesses to Jesus; in 8:12-59 we will see how the word of Jesus witnesses to him, and in 10:22-39 we will see how the works of Jesus witness to him. But in these cases the listeners are the religious authorities (Jews) and in every case, the religious authorities (Jews) fail to respond to these essential witnesses. Finally in 15:20- 25 Jesus will return briefly to a listing of the witnesses to show that his enemies have hated him “without cause”…”

PART I: “Son of God” is God

The “Son of God” title is one of the surest attestations of Christ’s divinity in the Gospels. This is due to the fact that it is always used in an exclusive sense. This exclusivity is denoted either through the use of the definite article or through the context, and usually both, as we will see. The argument for exclusive sonship having a divine connotation is not difficult either- why should God have a Son in the first place? Isn’t the whole point of monotheism to do away with multiplying divine entities? A literal son would be an entity derived from divine substance, which is exactly what happens in pagan religions, like Hercules from Zeus. On the other hand, were it argued that the sonship were not literal but rather only metaphorical “like everyone else”, then how can it also be unique?

In the Gospels we have the voice of the Father specifically pointing out one individual in all of history and affirming of him “this is my beloved Son”. We have Jesus teaching about his intimate relationship with the Father that no creature enjoys. In Jesus’ parables he has the father say “this is my only son, maybe they will listen to him” as he sends him to confront the killers, ostensibly unarmed, thus as a sacrifice. It hardly sounds reasonable that a metaphor is intended here, rather we feel drawn into the visceral nature of these statements. When Jesus speaks of the Father he does not include us in the relationship, except when he teaches us how to pray, in which case he does not include himself in the relationship, and both share an exclusive self-revelation “no one knows the Son except the Father and no one knows the Father except the son” and “no one has seen God, only the Son”.

Some might try to make an even more strained argument suggesting that the Bible uses two levels of metaphor, one for the communal sonship of believers, and another for Jesus because his metaphor is more “special” than ours, and his relationship is for some reason closer to God, while still only metaphorical. At this point we are left to consider to what extent it is valid and mandated to extend the use of non-literal interpretations in Scripture and it can begin to allow for a dangerous overuse of metaphorization in scriptural exegesis. But perhaps even more importantly , one then to contend with a metaphorical son-figure in the Bible being accorded service, worship, that “every knee shall bow” to him, and that all creatures are saved through his blood, and many other things which we shall see in this article, which if accorded to a creature, are literally what paganism means, either that or paganism has no meaning.

Thus of all the ways of viewing these statements in the Gospels only the one-substance “homo-ousios” Trinitarian explanation preserves monotheism, because there is no second substance to which anything divine might be ascribed, separated from the first. This is why the exclusive and unique “Son of God title is a powerful attestation of divinity.

We begin this this verse from John:

“No one has ever seen God. It is God the only Son, (μονογενὴς Θεὸς) who is close to the Father’s heart (or bosom), who has made him known” (Jn.1:18).

The Greek text reads “(ho) monogenes theos (or “huios”), ho on eis tov kolpon tou patros, ekeinos exeplesato”. “Mono” is one, while “genes” is for “genus” or “kind”. This therefore means “one of a kind”, or “only Son”, period. This is literally “a unique one, God, the one being in the bosom of the Father, this one has made him (the Father) known” (I’ve used commas to break up the phrase so as to corresponed to the translated phrases). The fact that the unique one is in the bosom of the father denotes that it is God’s child already (The Latin use of “only begotten son” is a bit of a paraphrase and combines the manuscript traditions which uses huios, and in this sense it is not inaccurate. Begotten and sonship are synonyms, since only one that is begotten can be a son and the Latin uses both terms, an intensification).

Monogenes theos appears in p66, Sinaiticus, Vaticanus and Ephraemi, “monogenes huios (son)” in Alexandrinus, while ho monogenes theos “the unique God” in p75 of the early manuscripts. The NRSV, for example, footnotes alternative translations: “It is an only Son, God”, or “It is the only Son”.

A reading of “the only Son” is well supported elsewhere in John itself as we see in:“The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the one and only Son (monogenes huios), who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.” (Jn.1:14); 1 John 4:9 (ton huion autou, ton monogene) and John 3:16 (ton huion, ton monogene). Further, there is powerful parallelism in other Biblical passages for this reading for example when Jesus refers to the unique sonship in the parable of he wicked tenants: “He had still one other, a beloved son. Finally he sent him to them, saying, ‘They will respect my son.’” (Mk.12:6)  and in the sacrifice of Abraham Genesis 22:2 (cf. Hebrews 11:7): “take your son, your only son, whom you love, Isaac and go to the region of Moriah. Sacrifice him there as a burnt offering on a mountain I will show you”

New Testament scholar Brant Pitre enumerates some of the pertinent passages and states: ,

“The designation of Jesus in the New Testament as “Son of God” is widespread, and no other title of his can claim as much significance for later theological development than it (…) Whether the title is used in the anarthrous form, υίος θεοϋ, or the arthrous form, ό υίος του θεοϋ, or is uttered by a heavenly voice as υιός μου, “my Son,” or used as a description of Jesus by some New Testament writer as υίος αύτοϋ or υίος έαυτοϋ, “his Son,” its meaning is clear. It expresses the distinctive relationship of Jesus to the God of Israel, Yahweh, who is his heavenly Father (…) The title “Son of God” occurs (I’ve bullet-pointed this section):

-in the Synoptic Gospels: Mark 1:1,11; 3:11; 5:7; 15:39; Matt 2:15; 3:17; 4:3, 6; 8:29; 14:33; 16:16; 17:5; 26:63; 27:40, 43, 54; Luke 1:32, 35; 3:22; 4:3, 9, 41; 8:28; 9:35; 22:70 (and John) 1:18,34,49; 3:18; 5:25; (9:35);10:36; 11:4,27; 19:7; 20:31. (in Acts): 8:37; 9:20; 13:33;

-in the uncontested Pauline letters: Rom 1:3-4, 9; 5:10; 8:3, 29, 32; 1 Cor 1:9; 2 Cor 1:19; Gal 1:16; 2:20; 4:4, 6; 1 Thess 1:10;

-in the Deutero-Pauline Eph 4:13;

-in the Epistle to the Hebrews: 1:5; 4:14; 5:5; 6:6; 7:3; 10:29;

-in the Johannine Epistles: 1 John 1:3,7, 8; 3:23; 4:9,10,15; 5:5,9,10,11,12,13,20 ; 2 John 3;

-in the book of Revelation: 2:18; and in 2 Peter: 1:17.

-Moreover, it not only occurs in some Pauline passages that are often regarded as fragments of the primitive kerygma (1 Thess 1:10; Rom 1:3-4),

-but it even develops within the New Testament itself so that it becomes merely “the Son,” an absolute form of the title, used either by Jesus of himself (Mark 13:32; Matt 24:36) or by Paul (1 Cor 15:28).” (Pitre, p.63,64)

The definite article is an indication of exclusivity, as you would state of a royal prince: “he is the heir”, which is to imply that there is no other. This can either refer to a pagan demi-God in the manner that Hercules is the son of Zeus, else it is the assertion of the Christian doctrine. “Son of God” is never used with the definitive article elsewhere in the Bible.

Conclusion: “The Son of God” with the definite article is a unique title in all of Scripture, whether Judaic, Christian or Muslim. One might at times hear the objection raised that there are others also called sons of God in the Bible. However without the definite article this could refer literally to everyone in Israel from the king to peasant. The Bible only acknowledges one person in all of the Universe as the owner of this title. Further, being monotheists, we must accept accept that either it is impossible for God to have a literal Son that is substance of his substance, or that were he to indeed have a Son, that they are both the same Substance. Those are the only two acceptable positions and there is no possibility of a middle term.

Next we look at some of the specific instances in which this term is used and their individual significance.

Jesus calls himself “Son of God”

The dead of the earth hear the voice of this unique son and will rise:

“Very truly I tell you, a time is coming and has now come when the dead will hear the voice of the Son of God and those who hear will live.” (John 5:25)

It is one that the Father has sanctified and sent into the world:

“can you say that the one whom the Father has sanctified and sent into the world is blaspheming because I said, ‘I am God’s Son’? If I am not doing the works of my Father, then do not believe me…” (John. 10:36)

The miracles worked by God glorify his Son and himself:

“But when Jesus heard it, he said, “This illness does not lead to death; rather it is for God’s glory, so that the Son of God may be glorified through it” (John. 11:4)

Jesus is using a striking analogy to show that he is the “own” Son of the Heavenly king. He is exempt from paying the Temple tax of his Father, just as an earthly Prince is exempt from paying the castle tax, as it were:

“Does your teacher not pay the Temple tax?…“What do you think, Simon?” he asked. “From whom do the kings of the earth collect duty and taxes—from their own children or from others?…then the children are free (apo ton huion auton e apo ten allotrion)” (Matt.17:24-26 excerpts)

Jesus’ Exclusive Relationship with the Father

The very title “God the Father” is derived from Jesus’ manner of address to him. If not for this peculiar usage in the Christian Testament, no major world religion, Abrahamic or otherwise would refer to God as “Father” as routine. Jesus, in the relevant texts, is either addressing the Father directly, or describing to his disciples some aspect of his unique relationship with the Father, that only he is sent from the Father, that only he is “from” the Father (Jn 6:46), can alone access, know or see Him. In fact the entire phrase “God the Father” is only seen once in the Gospels (total 15 occ), and it is upon the lips of Jesus in John 6:27. This is different from saying “the Father, who is God”, rather “God the Father” would seem to imply the presence of God the Son.

Exclusive access to knowledge

“All things have been handed over to me by my Father; and no one knows the Son except the Father, and no one knows the Father except the Son and anyone to whom the Son chooses to reveal him.” (Mt 11:27, Lk10:22)

Exclusivity of Ownership/Dominion

Jesus takes it upon himself to clean out his “Father’s house” (Mk.11:15-19; Mt.21:12-14; Lk.19:45-48; Jn.2:13-25), and again of his “Father’s kingdom” (eg.Mt.26:29). He is not referring to this Kingdom as being the possession of anyone but his Father. Thus he is asserting a filial claim to Heaven which is exclusive to himself.

Jesus is giving a gift the Father has promised to all of humanity: “…see, I am sending to you what my Father promised” (Lk.24:49b)

Here Jesus addressing his Father receives a response from God! “Father, glorify Your name!” Then a voice came from heaven: “I have glorified it, and I will glorify it again.” (John 12:28).

Voice from Heaven- Here Jesus addressing his Father receives a response from God! “Father, glorify Your name!” Then a voice came from heaven: “I have glorified it, and I will glorify it again.” (John 12:28).

Exclusivity of Origin

Note that we are also looking at instances when Jesus uses “my Father” in an exclusive sense, since Fatherhood also implies Sonship. When Jesus refers to his Father he is also often implying his pre-existence, which is again an important factor in arriving at the conclusion of divine connotation. To avoid repetition we will look at these in the section on Jesus’ pre-existence but the particular verses relevant to the divine Sonship are from John 8 and 16.

Exclusivity of Sonship to the Father

Once again, when God states “this” is my Son, he is using the indicative “this” in an exclusive manner, as a king indicates the heir to the throne. Baptism of Jesus- “This is my Beloved Son” Mark 1:11, Matt.3:13-17, Lk. 3:21-22, Jn.1:29-34 Transfiguration- “This is my Beloved Son” Mk. 9:7, Mt.17:1-8, Lk.9:28-36; 2Pet.1:16-18.

We see the remarkable expression “his own son” used only twice in the New Testament, and only in relation to Jesus and the Father, both times in Romans “tou idiou huiou” (8:32); “ton heautou huiou” (8:3).

Jesus Called the “Son of God” by Others

These can be arranged in the following groups:

Jesus’ Accusers:

It seems obvious that a certain significance is being attached to the term “Son of God” so as to associate with a divine power and its abuse as blasphemous:

Jesus before the High Priest and the elders, and various other points during his Passion and Death on the Cross: “…All of them asked, ‘Are you, then, the Son of God?’…’” (Luke 22:69-71), (Mt. 26:63) “…tell us if you are the Messiah, the Son of God”(27:40) “if you are the Son of God come down from the Cross”; John 19:7 “The Jews answered him, ‘We have a law, and according to that law he ought to die because he has claimed to be the Son of God.’”

The Centurion, Jesus’ Disciples:

Testifying to the powerful signs that he sees at the Crucifixion event the Roman centurion exults: “…“Truly this man was the Son of God!” (Mk.15:39)

“Then Nathanael declared, “Rabbi, you are the Son of God; you are the king of Israel.” (Jn.1:49), Martha (Jn.11:27)

Jesus asks the eternal question, precisely the one we are asking: “Who do you say that I am?” Peter again uses the definite article- “the” Son of God, and Jesus affirms the exclusivity effectively stating: “My Father told you that I am his Son”: “You are the Christ, the Son of the living God.” Jesus replied, “Blessed are you, Simon son of Jonah! For this was not revealed to you by flesh and blood, but by My Father in heaven” (Mt.16:16,17). There is no indication that God is the Father of any of the others among Jesus’ listeners in the manner that he is the Father of Jesus. We can think of many other examples in which Jesus speaks of his exclusive Divine Sonship, always “My Father” even though the others are right there with him.

The angel declaring to Mary:

“He will be called the Son of God” (Lk.1:35)      

The Devil and the Demons: in Mark 1:24, 3:11, Luke 4:41, 8:28 (Son of the Most High God) and others. We discuss further in the section on Jesus’ Authority

The Gospel writers themselves:

Mark 1:1 “The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God” .The NETBible commentary analysis says that the majority evidence is that the term Son of God was present in the original and the fact that it is not present in some manuscripts might be an accidental omission.

Gospel of John: (1:34- “we have seen and testify that this is God’s chosen one (“is the Son of God” in many manuscripts)” , (20:31) “But these are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Messiah, the Son of God, and that by believing you may have life in his name.”, “the dead will hear the voice of the Son of God, and those who hear will live” (Jn. 5:25, 3:18 “ Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe stands condemned already because they have not believed in the name of God’s one and only Son.”

St. Paul is speaking of a God who has set him apart before his birth that through him his Son might be proclaimed. He also confesses that the gospel of Jesus was not received by him from any human origin or source, but through a revelation of Jesus in verse 11, 12 and again in 16. God is revealing the Gospel of his Son and he is not doing is through any human source rather through the revelation of his Son. It is hard to see just how his Son might be a mere human here.

“God…was pleased to reveal his Son to me (or in me), so that I might proclaim him…I did not confer with any human being…”

In Ephesians 1, St. Paul tells us that God through his Son (v.5) has given us every spiritual blessing in the Heavenly places (v.3), that we may be holy and blameless before him (v.4) and thereby we too become his adoptive children (v.5). It is hard to see how we can become children of God through someone else who is also like one of us and no more than that. We see this passage in more detail elsewhere in this article. This is repeated in Gal.4:4,5.

Son of God in the Old Testament

An unmistakeable prophecy about the Son of God:

“Who has ascended to heaven and come down?
    Who has gathered the wind in the hollow of the hand?
Who has wrapped up the waters in a garment?
    Who has established all the ends of the earth?
What is the person’s name?
    And what is the name of the person’s child?
    Surely you know!” (Proverbs 30:4)

In Dan 3:25 it is the divine Son which comes to the rescue of Daniels friends in the fiery furnace and walks with them unscathed in the fire, causing the conversion of the King: “I see four men unbound, walking in the middle of the fire, and they are not hurt; and the fourth has the appearance of a god (in Aramaic “like that of a son of the gods”, while the LXX states “the appearance of the fourth is like a Son of God” καὶ ἡ ὅρασις τοῦ τετάρτου ὁμοία υἱῷ θεοῦ)

Psalm 2 talks of the Messiah who is the Begotten son of God.

Jesus with the Authority of God

Jesus claims to be doing the mission reserved to Yahweh himself. And not just to Israel, but to the whole world. In NT Wright’s words: “Jesus’ prophetic vocation included within it the vocation to enact, symbolically, the return of YHWH to Zion. His messianic vocation included within it the vocation to attempt certain tasks which, according to scripture YHWH had reserved for Himself. He would take up Himself the role of messianic shepherd, knowing that YHWH claims this role as His own. He would perform the saving task which YHWH had said he alone could achieve. He would do what no messenger, no angel but only the ‘’arm of YHWH’, the preserve of Israel’s God could accomplish. He believed he had to do and be for Israel and the world, that which according to scripture only YHWH himself could do and be.

He OWNS us

Called by, saved in his Name

(In addition, we also see miracles performed in Jesus’ Name in the Miracles section, and “Christ saves and sanctifies like Yahweh)

The Jerome states describes how in Luke-Acts, Salvation and the works of Salvation are through Jesus and in his name:

Salvation in the Name of Jesus in Luke/Acts:
“Salvation is an important Lucan motif. In fact the word salvation (soteria) and saviour (soter) are found only in Luke- Acts (8 times in Luke 1: 47, 69, 71, 77; 2: 11, 30; 3: 6; 19: 9; and 9 times in Acts 4: 12, 5: 31; 7: 25; 13: 23, 26, 47; 16: 7; 27: 34; 28: 28 ). For Luke, the plan of God is a plan of salvation. God wills and directs salvation history. God has brought salvation to Israel in the past and continues to bring salvation in the present through Jesus. According to Luke Jesus Christ is the agent of God’s salvation.

In the Acts of the Apostles, salvation is always offered “in the name of Jesus” (2:21,38; 3:16; 4:7-18; 8: 12; 10:43). Apostles and Christians heal (3:6; 4:30), teach ( 5: 28,40), baptise (8:16; 10: 48; 9:15), exorcise demons (16:18; 19:13 ), preach(9:27-28), witness (9:15), and serve (15:26 ) in Jesus’ name. They also call upon (9:14, 21; 22:16 ), suffer for (5:41; 9:16; 21:13; 26:9), and honour (19:17 ) the name of Jesus…” (p.1450,51) …The phrase “in the name of Jesus” ( 2: 38; 3: 6, 16; 4: 10, 12, 17 to 18, 30; 5: 28, 40 to 41; 8: 12; 9: 16, 21, 27, 28; 15: 26; 16: 18; 19: 13, 17; 21: 13; 22: 16; 26: 9 ) occurs so frequently that it functions as a “refrain in Acts” (Fitzmyer, 266)…” (p.1462)

To Suffer in Jesus’ Name is Salvific:

In the OT we have: “…your own people hate you and reject you for my name’s sake…” (Isaiah 66:5).

Jesus says: “you will be hated by all for my name’s sake” (Mt. 10:22, also Lk.21:17, Jn.15:21).

In Mark we have “because you bear the name of Christ” (Mk.9:41)

““Blessed are you when others revile you and persecute you and utter all kinds of evil against you falsely on my account.” (Mt. 5:11)

“For whoever would save his life will lose it, but whoever loses his life for my sake and the gospel’s will save it.” (Mk.8:35, Mt.10:39, Lk.17:33)

“whoever welcomes one such child in my name welcomes me” (Mk.9:37, Mt.18:5)

“And everyone who has left houses or brothers or sisters or father or mother or wife or children or fields for my name’s sake will receive a hundredfold and will inherit eternal life.” (Mk:10:29, Mt.19:29)

“Then they will hand you over to be tortured and will put you to death, and you will be hated by all nations because of my name.” (Mt.24:9)

“As for yourselves, beware, for they will hand you over to councils, and you will be beaten in synagogues, and you will stand before governors and kings because of me, as a testimony to them“ (Mk.13:9, cf. Mt.10:18)

Salvation in Jesus’ Name, in the Gospels

“Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit” (Mt.28:19)

 “But these are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Messiah, the Son of God, and that by believing you may have life in his name.” John 20:31

“ Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe stands condemned already because they have not believed in the name of God’s one and only Son.” (Jn. 3:18)

“…This Jesus is ‘the stone that was rejected by you, the builders; it has become the cornerstone.’ There is salvation in no one else, for there is no other name under heaven given among mortals by which we must be saved.” (Acts 4:11,12?)

“They were baptised in the name of Jesus Christ” (Acts10:48b)

Salvation in Jesus’ Name in the Epistles

“…Jesus Christ our Lord, through whom we have received grace and apostleship to bring about the obedience of faith among all the gentiles for the sake of his name, including you who are called to belong to Jesus Christ” (Romans 1:4-6)

“For “everyone who calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved.” (Rom.9:13)

It’s clear that when Paul says “we live/die to the Lord”, he’s speaking of Christ, the passage is clearly predicated of Christ, upto the end where Christ is “Lord of the living and the dead”. No one can this be spoken of but God, for whom we live and die.

“for none of us lives to himself (oudeis gar hemon heauto ze), and no one dies to himself (kai oudeis heauto apothneskei) ean te gar zomen, to Kyrio zomen (if we should live, we live to the Lord (ean te apothneskomen, to Kyrio apothneskomen (if we should die, we die to the Lord). Ean te our zomen ean te apothneskomen (if we should both, live or die) tou Kyriou esmen (we are the Lord’s). Eis touto gar Christos apethanen kai zesen (for this Christ dies and lived again) hina kai nekron kai zoonton kyrieuse (that he might be Lord of both the living and the dead).” (14: 7-9)

“called to be saints, together with all those who in every place call on the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, both their Lord and ours” (1Cor.1:2)

Here Paul is literally referencing (therefore the quotes) Joel 2:32, which reads, and using kuriou for YHWH: “and so it will be that all who call on the name of YHWH will be saved”

“I know you are enduring patiently and bearing up for my name’s sake, and you have not grown weary.” (Rev.2:3)

We are his sheep (John)

“My sheep hear my voice. I know them, and they follow me. I give them eternal life, and they will never perish. No one will snatch them out of my hand. My Father, in regard to what he has given me, is greater than all, and no one can snatch them out of the Father’s hand.” (John 10:27-29)

The significance of a verse in which the status of a prophet is being elevated as ontologically superior to that of their followers cannot be overemphasized. It would be be seen as disrespectful for any human leader to refer to their followers in like manner. This matches the language that God uses in reference to his people in the OT. Incredibly, three elements from the verse are in John are mirrored here: “the sheep”, “his hand” and “his voice”:

“For he is our God, and we are the people of his pasture; and the sheep of his hand. O that today you would listen to his voice!” (Psalm 95:7)

We Belong to him (St. Paul)

Man cannot “belong” or be the possession of anything except God. These are the verses in St Paul’s writings which say that we belong to Christ. The first from Romans and the last two from Galatians, but all the rest are from 1 Corinthians.

Romans 1:6 “…yourselves who are called to belong to him/called of him “hemeis kletoi Iesou Christou”. It is correct to specify “belong to Christ”, because the Gr. “called of Christ”, it implies “called as belonging to Christ”, or “called Christ’s” (it’s possessive), while in English, to say “the called of Christ” might also imply simply “those whom Christ has called”, like “the blessed of my Father” implies “those who my Father has blessed” rather than those that belong to the Father. This ambiguity is remedied in the English by adding the quotes “called ‘of Christ'”. At the same time even were the second meaning to be taken, one could still take it to imply “called to belong”, else it would be left unclear as to what the calling was for. Among translations here, Holman’s goes with “Christ’s by calling”, ESV/NIV/NLV/NRSV/GN/RSV all use “belong to”, while KJV/NASB/NKJV/Lexham/D-R/Young’s all use “called of Jesus Christ”.

None of this is unusual, in the Greek, “belonging” is always denoted simply by employing the genitive (equivalent of using an spostrophe in English) as we see again:

“you now, belong to Christ (hymeis de Christou), and Christ belongs to God (Christos de Theou)” (1Cor.3:23, Gr. de is “now”)

Christ is the head of every man denotes belonging again:
“Christ is the head of every man, and the husband is the head of his wife, and God is the head of Christ (pantos andros he cephale Christos estin)” (1Cor.11:3)

Our very bodies are meant for Jesus, again an implication of belonging and possession. Here “the Lord” is clearly Christ, because the next verse says “and God raised the Lord”:

“The body is meant (…) for the Lord and the Lord for the body (to de soma ou te porneia, alla to Kyrio kai ho kyrios to somati , lit. “is for the Lord’v.13)…your bodies are members of Christ (ta somata hymon mele Chritsou estin v.15)… the one united to Christ is one spirit with him (ho kollomenos to Kyrio hen pneuma estin v.17)…your body is a Temple of the Holy Spirit within you (to somata hymon naos tou en hymin hagoiu pneumatos estin, hou echete apo theou v.19)…” (1Cor.6:13-19)

Again, here we are “slaves”, “purchased” by (the Blood of) Christ. Once again, there is a seeming equivalence of Christ and God “there remain with God”:

“For whoever was called in the Lord as a slave is a freed person belonging to the Lord apeleutheros Christou estin), just as whoever was free when called is a slave belonging to Christ (doulos estin Christou). You were bought with a price; do not become slaves of humans. In whatever condition you were called, brothers and sisters, there remain with God (en touto meneto para theo)” (1Cor.7:22-24)

“…then at his coming, those who belong to Christ” (1Cor.15:23)

1 Cor.1:12 (“…or ‘I belong to Cephas” or ‘I belong to CHrist'”);

1Cor.3:23 “and yu belong to CHrist, and CHrist belongs to God”

“Look at what is before your eyes. If you are confident that you belong to Christ, remind yourself of this, that just as you belong to Christ, so also do we.” (1Cor.10:7);

“…and if you belong to Christ…(hymeis Christou), then you are Abraham’s offspring,^* heirs according to the promise.” (Gal.3:29)

“and those who belong to Christ (hoi de tou Christou Iesou) have been crucified in the flesh with its passions and desires” (Gal.5:24)

All Things/all authority has been given him by the Father

“All things have been delivered to me by my Father” (Matt.11:27)

“All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me.” (Matt.28:18)

“Jesus, knowing that the Father had given all things to his hands, and that he had come from God and was going to God” (John 13:3)

All things that the father has are his (John 16:15)

Shall be Worshipped as/with God

This incredible sequence in 1st Philippians asserts the exaltation of Christ, that he is exalted in our bodies, that he is the purpose of our lives, that he alone is our desire, that being with him is worth even more than lives, that we boast in him, that we should live to be worthy of him, and that God himself has granted us the “privilege” of believing in him. None of these could be said of a creature in a monotheistic faith:

“ It is my eager expectation and hope that I will not be put to shame in any way but that by my speaking with all boldness Christ will be exalted now as always in my body, whether by life or by death. ²¹ For to me, living is Christ and dying is gain. ²² If I am to live in the flesh, that means fruitful labor for me, yet I cannot say which I will choose. ²³ I am hard pressed between the two: my desire is to depart and be with Christ, for that is far better, ⁽²⁶⁾your boast might abound in Christ Jesus because of me. ²⁷ Only, live your life in a manner worthy of the gospel of Christ, (28) And this is God’s doing. ²⁹ For he has graciously granted you the privilege not only of believing in Christ but of suffering for him as well, ³⁰ “

In Phil.3:3, “we who in the Spirit of God worship, and boast in Christ Jesus…”

The above is a complex sentence construction. There is possible controversy as to whether “worshipping” (latreuontes) is simply an intransitive construction, or along with “boasting” kauchomenoi share a common object with Christ Jesus. It is unlikely that worship takes theou as its object since the latter is in the genitive case, while latreuo takes a verb in the dative. Whichever way this is taken, it is noteworthy merely for the manner in which the “boasting in Christ” is mentioned and held literally in the same breath as the worship of God.

God the Father stated, “To me every knee shall bow, every tongue shall swear” (Is 45:22-23) is applied to Jesus (Phil 2:10-11).

“There is salvation in no one else, for there is no other name under heaven given among mortals by which we must be saved.” (Acts 4:12)

(1 Cor.1.2) “To the church of God that is in Corinth, to those who are sanctified in Christ Jesus, called to be saints, together with all those who in every place call on the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, both their Lord and ours…”

In Acts 7, St. Stephen prays to Jesus. Luke states that he actually saw Jesus sitting at the right hand of God, and Stephen praying: “…Lord Jesus, receive my Spirit….” (59), and asking “Lord, do not hold this sin against them” (60).

Revelations- The Lamb Enthroned

“Nothing accursed will be found there any more. But the throne of God and of the Lamb will be in it, and his servants will worship him;” (Rev.22:3)

In Rev.5:13 the Lamb receives worship. There is precedent for the singular pronoun here being used to refer to antecedents. it can also have plural antecedents (eg. 2Jn.7 and 3Jn.4, as Dan Wallace points out):

“Then I heard every creature in heaven and on earth and under the earth and in the sea and all that is in them, singing, “To the one seated on the throne and to the Lamb be blessing and honor and glory and might forever and ever!”” (Rev.5:13)

“Then the seventh angel blew his trumpet, and there were loud voices in heaven, saying, The kingdom of the world has become the kingdom of our Lord and of his Messiah, and he will reign forever and ever.” (Rev.11:15)

God the Father sits on His Throne in heaven (1Ki. 22:19; Ps 11:4; 47:8). Jesus is on the same throne, too (Rev. 7:17; 22:1,3):

“for the Lamb at the center of the throne will be their Shepherd, and he will guide them to springs of the water of life…” (Rev 7:17a)

Lord of the Sabbath like Yahweh himself

It is God to whom the Sabbath belongs: “…but the seventh day is a Sabbath to the Lord your God” (Exodus 20:10, Deut. 5:14) and “…and you must observe my Sabbaths, I am the Lord your God” (Lev.19:3)

Yet Jesus says: “the Son of Man is Lord also of the Sabbath..” (Matt.12:8)

Matt. 12:8 was Jesus’ response to being challenged for healing on the Sabbath. In John he responds to a similar challenge by literally equating himself with the Father. That is he and God the Father have the same exemption from working on the Sabbath, unlike created things. Why would they not, since the laws are made for man. Again, this signification was not lost on the “Jews” who realized that he “was mking himself equal to God” (5:18). The Jerome notes that this was actually a point of discussion among the rabbis, as to whether God was bound ot the Sabbath observance or not. They came to the conclusion “that God Could work on the Sabbath because his activity kept all creation in existence and, if he did not work on the Sabbath, creation would fall out of existence” (p.1400):

“My Father is still working, and I am also working” (Jn 5:17)

St Paul says that Jesus is the substance, literally the “body”, of which out Sabbath observance is just a prefigurement:

“¹⁶ Therefore, do not let anyone condemn you in matters of food or drink or of observing festivals, new moons, or Sabbaths. ¹⁷ These are only a shadow of what is to come, but the substance (to soma- the body) belongs to Christ.” (Col 2:16,17).

Greater than God’s Temple and prophets

“But I tell you that something greater than the temple is here.” (Matt.12:6)

This is in a series of three “greater than” statements of Jesus “something greater than Jonah is here” (12:41) and “something greater than Solomon is here” (12:42)

“something greater than Solomon is here…something greater than Jonah is here” (Luke 11:32)

Authority over the Forces of Evil

These state Jesus’ title “Son of God” in fear as they bend to his command. “Whenever the unclean spirits saw him, they fell down before him and shouted, “You are the Son of God” (Mark 3:11, Luke 4:41, 8:48). They claim to know “who Jesus is”, that he is “the holy one of God”, and are permitted to say no more by Jesus. Jesus’ physical appearance belies a spiritual reality that is not obvious to the human eye. When Jesus exorcises demons he does not call out any divine name. The demons are terrified of him specifically, and not in the sense of being a Divine Agent. They are afraid he will destroy them himself “have you come to destroy us?” (Mk.1:24). There is no one else who an evil spiritual being like a demon would fear, would obey in spite of that fear as though unable to refuse a command of, and who could literally “destroy” a spiritual entity. All this Jesus is acknowledged of being capable of without recourse to any external power.

In Luke chapter 8, we see the demon beg Jesus “I beg you do not torment me” (v.28) and again they beg, and they are aware he can order: “they begged him not to order them to go back into the abyss” (v.31); and again, they beg and he permits (v.32), “for Jesus had commanded the unclean spirit to come out of the man” (v.29).

Later we see the seventy say to Jesus “Lord in your name even the demons submit to us” (Lk.10:17) To which Jesus’ reply “See, I have given you authority to tread on snakes and scorpions, and over all the power of the enemy; and nothing will hurt you.” (Lk.10:19)

Jesus as God interacting with Humanity

He Sends Disciples and Prophets  

“These twelve Jesus sent out…Cure the sick, raise the dead, cleanse the lepers, cast out demons (…) See, I am sending you out like sheep into the midst of wolves…” (Matt.12:5-8,16)

We see the motif God caring for his people by taking them “under his wings” is passages like Ruth 2:12; Ps.36:7; Ps.57:1; Deut 32:11.

(Matt. 23:34,37-39; “Jerusalem…” onward also in Luke 13:34,35) “Therefore I send you prophets, sages, and scribes, some of whom you will kill and crucify, and some you will flog in your synagogues and pursue from town to town (…) Jerusalem, Jerusalem, the city that kills the prophets and stones those who are sent to it! How often have I desired to gather your children together as a hen gathers her brood under her wings, and you were not willing! See, your house is left to you, desolate. For I tell you, you will not see me again until you say, ‘Blessed is the one who comes in the name of the Lord.’”

When they had come opposite Mysia, they attempted to go into Bithynia, but the Spirit of Jesus did not allow them; (Acts 16:7)

“…Jesus Christ our Lord, ⁵ through whom we have received grace and apostleship to bring about the obedience of faith among all the gentiles…” (Romans 1:4,5)

“Paul, called to be an apostle of Christ Jesus…” (1Cor.1)

To be an apostle is to “be sent” by someone. Thus to be called to be an apostle of another is to be sent by them: “Paul, called to be an apostle of Christ Jesus by the will of God, and our brother Sosthenes“.

Judgement of God, by Christ

The Bible teaches that God is the final judge of all people (1 Sam 2:10; Ps 50:6; Ecc. 12:14; many others). “As for you, my flock, thus says the Lord God: I shall judge between sheep and sheep, between rams and goats” (Ez.34:17). We find uniformly throughout the New Testament that the act of judging humanity is accorded to the person Christ himself. Not only are there verses saying that Jesus judges, but the entire event of the judgement of humanity by Christ is described in vivid detail and from various perspectives- visual, moral, parabolic. Finally, we shall see that the “Day of the Lord”, a foundational theme in OT prophecy, which just as in the case of Judgement is accorded to Yahweh, is in the New Testament predicated of none other than Christ. There can really be no room for doubt as to the authors’ understanding of Christs’ identity here.

Christ’s Judgement in the Synoptic Gospels

These Gospel verses state that we must be acknowledged by Jesus before the Father and receive his approval, as implied in the negative by “ashamed/deny”. This is clearly judgement, and human beings are judged according to their relationship with Christ “ashamed of me”. It follows that the “coming” is the coming in judgement, as we see frequently mentioned in Paul’s writings, as we shall see.

“And I tell you, everyone who acknowledges (homologeo 26 occ., usu.tr. to confess) me before others, the Son of Man also will acknowledge before the angels of God; but whoever denies me (arenomai, 33occ.) before others will be denied before the angels of God.” (Lk.12:8,9, Mt.10:32,33, Mk.8:38 uses “ashamed”,epaischynomai, 11occ, the event is also in 2Thes.17:1-10, see later)

(Mt.16:27) “For the Son of Man is going to come in his Father’s glory with his angels, and then he will reward/repay (apodosei) each person according to what they have done.”

Jesus says: “I declare to them, ‘I never knew you; depart from me, you workers of lawlessness.’” (Mt.7:23)

Matthew 22 has the parable of a “king who gave a marriage feast for his son” (v.1), the punishment for not attending which is being “thrown into the outer darkness where there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth” (v.13). It is clear that the father in the parable is God and the son, Jesus, and that the Father’s justice is analogically predicated of the people’s relationship with the Son.

Christ’s Coming in Judgement

We now look at the synoptic narrative of the Hour of the World’s Judgement by Jesus Christ (rpt. in article on Christ’s knowledge of the Hour) in Mt.24:30-51; Mk.13:26-27 and Lk.21:25-36. In the phraseology of the Gospels, the Son of Man will come on the clouds with with great power and glory (all 3), he will send out his angels (Mt.&Mk., paralleled Lk.12:9, Mk.8:38, Mt.10:33, above) with a loud trumpet call (Mt.) to gather his elect from the four winds (Mk.& Mt.) from the ends of the earth (Mt.&Mk.) to the ends of heaven (Mk.), because your redemption is drawing near (Lk.), there will be signs in the heavens (all 3); the sun and moon darkened, powers of heaven shaken and the stars fall from heaven; then the prophecy (Mt.&Mk.), identical in Mt.(vv.33-35) and Mk.(vv.28-31), while Lk.(vv.29-33) says:“ So also, when you see all these things, you know that he (or “it” Mt.& Mk.; Lk. “the Kingdom of God is near”) is near, at the very gates. Truly I tell you, this generation will not pass away until all these things have taken place. Heaven and earth will pass away, but my words will not pass away.” 

In Mt., Jesus likens the Hour to the judgement upon the Earth in the days of Noah: “so too will be the coming of the Son of Man” (v.39), then goes on to describe the manner in which one will be taken from the field/ grinding corn, and the warnings to “keep awake therefore for you do not know the hour that your Lord is coming” (Mt.vv.42,44, also 25:12); Mk.: “when the time will come” (v.33). Mt. also gives the analogy of the thief coming unexpectedly, while Mk. uses the analogy of a master returning to the home and the warning “keep awake” (vv.35,37). Lk.’s phrasing is somewhat different (vv.34-36), again describing the unexpectedness of that day, that it will come upon people “over the whole face of the earth”, “like a trap” and the warning to “be alert, praying that you will have the strength…to stand before the Son of Man”.

Mt.’s account continues (Ch.25) with the parable of the ten bridesmaids, the ten talents, with Jesus saying to the worthy “well done, good and trustworthy servant…enter into the joy of your master” (vv.21,24), while in Lk. a parallel parable is earlier in Ch.19 with “well done, good slave” (v.17).

Mt.25 continues with the magnificent Judgement of Nations passage with the “sheep and goats”, (vv.31-46) in which Jesus as “king” is literally meting out judgement from the throne of God: “When the Son of Man comes in his glory and all the angels with him, then he will sit on the throne of his glory. 32 All the nations will be gathered before him, and he will separate people one from another as a shepherd separates the sheep from the goats, 33 and he will put the sheep at his right hand and the goats at the left. 34 Then the king will say…For I was hungry/ thirsty/ stranger/ naked/sick/in prison… (v.35 onward),… and then the king will answer them… you did it to me (v.40) then he will say…depart from me…(v.42)…for I was, etc….you did not do it to me (v.45)…”. (Mt.25:31-46)

The Theme of Christ’s Judgement in John

John 3:18 “ Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe stands condemned already because they have not believed in the name of God’s one and only Son.”

“Whatever the Father does the Son also does.”(5:19) “The Father judges no one but has given all judgement to the Son (…) he has given him authority to execute judgment because he is the Son of Man (5:22,27).

“even if I do judge, my judgment is valid, for it is not I alone who judge but I and the Father who sent me” (Jn.8:16)

“Jesus said, “I came into this world for judgment, so that those who do not see may see and those who do see may become blind.” (John 9:39).

In spite of this we see that Jesus, even in judging, is still the Word of the Father in his role as Son. It is the word that the Father has given him which will judge people that do not receive them, and further in John 5 he says that he judges as he hears, indicating it is in line of the will of the Father who sent him. Nevertheless, the word of judgement, even though it is the Father’s as all things are the Father’s is still “given him”, as all things are for the Son:

“²⁷ and he has given him authority to execute judgment because he is the Son of Man…³⁰ “I can do nothing on my own. As I hear, I judge, and my judgment is just because I seek to do not my own will but the will of him who sent me.” (Jn.5:27,30)

yet Jesus is not relinquishing Judgement, rather he is very specific that the word he himself speaks “will serve as” judge, that is will “act as” judge, itself in the agency, as it were, of judging:
“⁴⁷I do not judge anyone who hears my words and does not keep them, for I came not to judge the world but to save the world. ⁴⁸ The one who rejects me and does not receive my words has a judge; on the last day the word that I have spoken will serve as judge, ⁴⁹ for I have not spoken on my own, but the Father who sent me has himself given me a commandment about what to say and what to speak. ⁵⁰ And I know that his commandment is eternal life. What I speak, therefore, I speak just as the Father has told me.” (Jn.12:47-50).

Jesus’ coming is truly eschatological, when happiness and knowledge will be complete:

“²¹ When a woman is in labor, she has pain because her hour has come. But when her child is born, she no longer remembers the anguish because of the joy of having brought a human being into the world. ²² So you have pain now, but I will see you again, and your hearts will rejoice, and no one will take your joy from you. ²³ On that day you will ask nothing of me.” (John 16:21-23)

Christ’s Judgement in Acts, the Epistles, Revelations

“He commanded us to preach to the people and to testify that he is the one ordained by God as judge of the living and the dead. All the prophets testify about him that everyone who believes in him receives forgiveness of sins through his name.” (Acts 10:42, 43)

Clearly when Paul is writing of the “coming” of the Lord, he is referring to Jesus, this is a staple of this writing in many places including the context in this verse. Here we also see therefore Christ’s omniscience:

Paul says “God, through Jesus Christ, will judge the secret thoughts of all” (Rom. 2:16), involving Jesus in the act and exercise of divine judgement. This is a verse of an act that is the sole prerogative of God, but being performed through the Son.

“…It is the Lord who judges me. Therefore do not pronounce judgment before the time, before the Lord comes, who will bring to light the things now hidden in darkness and will disclose the purposes of the heart. Then each one will receive commendation from God.” (1 Cor. 4:4,5)

Here not only is judgement pronounced in the Name of Jesus, and Paul asserts spiritually transcendent power of Jesus, that though he himself is not physically present with the Christian believers, through Christ’s power he is made present in a spiritual sense, and finally we see another reference to the day of the Lord, who is obviously Jesus here, because Paul has already said so previously, and we can see it is a day of definitive judgement:

“For I, though absent in body, am present in spirit, and as if present I have already pronounced judgment ⁴ in the name of the Lord Jesus on the man who has done such a thing. When you are assembled and my spirit is present with the power of our Lord Jesus, ⁵ you are to hand this man over to Satan for the destruction of the flesh, so that the spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord.” (1Cor.5:3-5)

“2 Corinthians 5:10, NIV: For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ, so that each of us may receive what is due us for the things done while in the body, whether good or bad.”

Jesus will come to inflict vengeance on those who did not obey his own Gospel:

“…and to grant relief to you who are afflicted as well as to us, when the Lord Jesus is revealed from heaven with his mighty angels in flaming fire, inflicting vengeance on those who do not know God and on those who do not obey the gospel of our Lord Jesus. They will suffer the punishment of eternal destruction, away from the presence of the Lord and from the glory of his might, when he comes on that day to be glorified in his saints, and to be marveled at among all who have believed, because our testimony to you was believed.” (2 Thes.1:7-10)

Letter to Timothy

Here we see that there is mercy to be had on the “day of the Lord”. This refers to mery in Jesus’ Judgement upon us.

2 Timothy 1.18 – May the Lord grant that he will find mercy from the Lord on that day! And you know very well how much service he rendered in Ephesus.

“In the presence of God and of Christ Jesus, who is to judge the living and the dead, and in view of his appearing and his kingdom, I solemnly urge you:”(2 Tim 4:1).

Book of Revelations:

“…and I will strike her children dead. And all the churches will know that I am he who searches mind and heart, and I will give to each of you according to your works.” (Rev.3:5)

“To the one who conquers I will give a place with me on my throne, just as I myself conquered and sat down with my Father on his throne.” (Rev.3:21)

“calling to the mountains and rocks, “Fall on us and hide us from the face of the one seated on the throne and from the wrath of the Lamb, for the great day of their (alt. reading is “his”) wrath has come, and who is able to stand?” (Rev.6:17,18)

““Behold, I am coming soon, bringing my recompense with me, to repay each one for what he has done.” (Rev.22:12-15)

The “Day of the Lord” is Jesus’ and YHWH’s

To appreciate just how strong the theme of the Day of the Lord is in the Old Testament, you can look here The Messianic Prophecy of the Bible, which is the whole of section 4.2. These are the New Testament instances where the specific phrase is used, but it should at this point be obvious that it relates to the same event that the NT has been relating in the verses of Judgement we have just seen.

Matthew 7.22: On that day many will say to me, “Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in your name, and cast out demons in your name, and do many deeds of power in your name?

1 Cor. 4.5 (quoted above). 1 Cor. 5.5: you are to hand this man over to Satan for the destruction of the flesh, so that his spirit may be saved on the day of the Lord.” 2 Cor. 1:14: as you have already understood us in part—that on the day of the Lord Jesus we are your boast even as you are our boast.” 1 Thes. 5.2: For you yourselves know very well that the day of the Lord will come like a thief in the night. 2 Thes.1:10 (quoted above); 2 Thes.2.2: not to be quickly shaken in mind or alarmed, either by spirit or by word or by letter, as though from us, to the effect that the day of the Lord is already here. 2 Tim. 1:18 (quoted above); 2 Tim.4.8: From now on there is reserved for me the crown of righteousness, which the Lord, the righteous judge, will give to me on that day, and not only to me but also to all who have longed for his appearing.

2 Peter 3.10: But the day of the Lord will come like a thief, and then the heavens will pass away with a loud noise, and the elements will be dissolved with fire, and the earth and everything that is done on it will be disclosed

Christ forgives sins, like God

Jesus forgives sins: (Matt.9:2,6) “take courage son, your sins are forgiven…the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins”.

In Luke 7:48 the woman is waching Jesus’ feet with her tears, wiping them with her hair and anointing them with costly ointment., putting on a reat display of love and gratitude in completer an utter neglect of the spectacle that she is mking of herself (see Jerome p.1316). Jesus makes it clear that the great love she is showing is because of the great many of her sins that have been forgiven. The obvious impication that none could have escaped arriving at is that she is displaying love for teh one that has forgiven her. The verson in Matthew and Mark the ointment in these is poured over Jesus’ head, there is no washing of the feet and there is no reference either to teh woman’s prior sinfulness or the forgiveness of her sins (Matt:26:10-12, mk.14:3-9).The reason that these should be seen as the same inciednt is that in John some elments, mainly the washing of Jesus’ feet are combined (Jn.12:1-8).

Redemption and the forgiveness of sins are “in him” (Col.1:14)

Gives to his followers the power “bind” and “loose” in his name, the keys to the Kingdom of Heaven: Jn. 20:23, Matt., 16:16 18:18, Yahweh does this in Isaiah 22:22

He fulfils the Law and the prophets (John 5:17), which were being proclaimed upto the time of John (Lk.16:16)

Christ Saves and Sanctifies like Yahweh

(also see the section in which we are “Called by, saved in his name)

In the Psalms the coming of the Lord is prophesied as the time when he will “hear the groans of the prisoners, to set free those who were doomed to die (Ps.102:20). Jesus clearly applies both this and the passage from Isaiah to his person when he reads from the Isaiah scroll (Lk.4:17,18- “…he sent me to proclaim liberty to the captives….to release the oppressed, to proclaim a year of the Lord’s favour…”). The passage in Isaiah seems to pertain more to the Messiah, starts with “the Spirt of the Lord is upon me, because the Lord has anointed me…” (v.1) and continues”…everlasting joy shall be theirs for I the Lord hate robbery and wrongdoing…I will make an everlasting covenant with them…all who see them shall acknowledge that they are a people whom the Lord has blessed ” (v.7-9). However there is no doubt that these passage from the Psalm pertains to Yahweh himself, and not only that, to his Advent in glory, as we read starting vv.13-12 as “the Lord will build up Zion, he will appear in his glory…when the peoples gather together, and kingdoms to worship the Lord”.

The theme of ransom and redemption is seen in verses like:
“but the redeemed (גְּאוּלִֽים geulim, ptcpl. ga’al 105 occ.) shall walk there. And the ransomed (פָדָה padah- ransomed, also redeemed, 59occ.) of the Lord shall return; and come to Zion with singing” (Is.35:9b,10)

Matt.20:28 “”just as the Son of Man came not to be served but to serve and to give his life a ransom for many.”

The Jerome (p.1214) states that “many” is a Semiticism equivalent to “all”, and that the “major motif is of a payment to free a slave or a prisoner of war. the verbal form is used of the Exodus from Egypt and the return from the Babylonian exile (LXX Exod.6:6; Deut. 7:8; Is.43:1)…”

The theme of Jesus saving us by his sacrifice of numerous in the Bible, examples are Heb.9:28; Tit.2:14; 1Pet.3:18; 1Tim.2:6; Rev.1:5 “he has freed us from our sins by his blood”; 2Cor.8:9 “you by his poverty might become rich”; Rev.5:8,9 “by your blood you ransomed people for God from every tribe and language and people and nation,”; 1Pet.1:18,19 “you were ransomed…with the precious blood of Christ”; 1Pet.2:24; Eph.1:7; Jn.3:17 “of I do not wash you you have no share with me”; Eph.5:2; Gal.3:13; Rom.5:15-19; Rom.4:25; 1Jn.2:2; Jn.11:50-52; Jn.10:15.

God states “besides me there is no saviour” (Is 43:11; cf. 1 Tim 4:10). Yet Jesus is called the “saviour” of mankind in passages like Luke 2:11 and many others.

“For the Son of Man came not to be served but to serve, and to give his life a ransom for many.” (Mark 10:45)

“Today in the city of David a Saviour has been born to you. He is Christ the Lord!” (Lk. 2:11)

There are only two places where the title “Saviour of the world (Soter tou Cosmou)”: John 4:42, 1 Jn 4:14:

“…now we know that this is truly the Saviour of the World”.

“…the cross of our Lord Jesus Christ through which the world has been crucified to me…” (Gal.6:15)

There’s about 8 passages that state we are saved by the blood of Christ. This is a list, but I need to take a closer look at it: https://www.biblestudytools.com/topical-verses/blood-of-jesus-bible-verses/:

“in him we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of our trespasses…” (Eph.1:7)

St. Paul- Giving Grace, Sanctifying, to Present to Himself, be in his Fellowship, the Source of Life

The fullness of God and God’s attributes in Christ

It is “through” one who is gracious that we may enter God’s grace. Who is gracious like God, but God himself? Yet Paul does not say anything like “God’s grace, through Jesus” in these particular verses (even if this can perhaps can be implied from other Paul says: “…our Lord Jesus Christ, through whom we have obtained access to this grace (χάριν charin)…” (5:1,2), again, “…it is…through Jesus that we have entered this state of grace…” (Rom.5:1).

In the previous chapter, Paul has said that we are “…justified by (God’s) grace as a gift (dikaoumenoi dorean te autou chariti), through the redemption that is in Jesus Christ (dia tes apolutroseos tes en Christo Iesou) whom God put forward as a sacrifice of atonement by his blood (hon proetheto ho theos hilasterion, effective through faith in his blood (dia tes pisteos in to autou haimati) to show forth his righteousness (eis endeixin tes dikaiosunes autou)…” (4:24,25). Here the Lexhham, KJV, ASV, D-R all use “faith in his blood”, which is a more literal translation of the passage. It can be seen God’s “gift”, which is the blessing of our redemption, is literally the sacrifice of his Son, and further this shows his righteousness and “forbearance” (ten paresin) in the matter of our sins (4:25). How could God show his righteousness in the matter of the sin’s of humanity by sacrificing a human for it?

“God’s grace” in relation to us is his blessings, and so through who else do we receive God’s blessings if not through the action of God himself. “Christ died for the ungodly” (Rom.5:6) indicates one that dies for those who reject God. Who else acts in the hearts and lives of the faithless to bring conversion but God himself. This too is an action of grace, after all. “God proves his love for us in that…Christ died for us” (5:8), There is no doubt here that Christ is God, how could it be a proof of God’s love for someone else to perform the loving act? Indeed if we are “justified by is blood” (5:9), how can it be that we are made holy, as it were, through the holiness of a creature?

5 times in chapter 5, Paul will refer that this is a gift, or a “free gift” of God (5:15 -to charisma, dorea in chariti, to dorema, to charisma (5:16), tes doreas (5:17). Further, he specifies “the free gift in grace of the one man, Jesus Christ abounded for the many”. Indeed, the “free gift (to charisma)…(of God)…the grace of God (he charis tou theou) and the gift in grace (he dochea in chariti)” which is “of the one man (te tou henos anthropou) Jesus Christ to the many did abound (eis tous pollous eperissousen)” (5:15). Clearly, a creature cannot give an “abounding” and “free” gift. God is the only entity that can give a gift while suffering no loss himself, no one else has superabundance to be giving bountiful handouts. Thus again, receiving “through the one, Christ Jesus (dia tou henos, Iesous Christos) the abundance of grace and the gift of righteousness (ten perisseian tes charitos kai tes doreas tes dikaiosunes)…”, “in life we will reign (in zoe basilesousin)…” (5:17). Faith itself is a gift and if that gift itself is Christ, who can Christ be, but God? As Paul says, “as to one who works, wages are not reckoned as gift (kata charin)” (4:4, see Eph.2:8-9 by grace [charin] you have been saved by faith…it is the gift [to doron] of God)

Sanctifying grace is obtained “in Christ”, with the direct implication that sanctity itself were inherent to him, as part of his very essence and nature. Indeed the very purpose of sanctification in the religious life is that we be one day presented to the source of that sanctity, Christ himself. As the verse states, that we be presented “blameless on (Christ’s) Day:

“…so that on the day of Christ you may be pure and blameless” Phil.1:10. See “Day of Christ” also in 1Cor1:8, Phil.1:6, 2:16.

In fact, God is doing a work in order that it be brought to completion for Christ. This is an incredible sequence where God is working for Christ. There is no disturbance though, since all it means, when we sue the correct Christology is that God is working for his own ends:

“I am confident of this, that the one who began a good work in you will continue to complete (or “perfect”) it until the day of Jesus Christ” (Phil 1:6)

and “righteousness…comes through Jesus Christ” (Phil.1:11)

St. Paul longs for the believers “with the compassion of Christ Jesus” (Phil:1:8)

SIX times in this passage is Jesus affirmed as “our Lord” (v.2,3,7,8,9,10- v.3 does not use “our”, but there is a different and even more powerful divine implication in it). Further, verse 10 implies that the Father orchestrated (by) the bringing of us into his Son’s fellowship. Once again, God brings us into fellowship with himself, not someone else. There is a specific entity called “the Son (of the Father)” in whose fellowship God wills we abide:

“Paul, called to be an apostle (one sent forth by) of Christ by God’s will (v.1)…to the Church of God (which is) made holy (sanctified) in him, is called to be holy….to call on (his) name…(him) both their Lord and ours (v.2)…Grace and peace (comes) to you from the Father and from him (v.3)…God’s grace has been given you in him (v.4) …you are, in every way, enriched in him (v.5)…(you will not be) lacking any spiritual gift “for his revealing” (v.7)…(thus) He will strengthen you to the end (as) blameless on (His, our Lord’s) day, (v.8). (Thus) the Father, in his faithfulness has called you into fellowship of our Lord, his Son (v.9)…God is the source of your life in Christ, who became for us wisdom from God, and righteousness, and sanctification and redemption…(v.30)” (1Cor.1:1-9; wording and word order slightly altered)

In Christ is every heavenly spiritual blessing. Since “every blessing” is intensified with “every heavenly” blessing, we can conclude that literally everything that God has to give is “in Christ”, and further it is given to us “in love”:

“Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed us in Christ with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places” (v.3)

Jesus is himself the glorious Grace of God. That Jesus is the “Grace of God” is intensified with “glorious” Jesus himself is God’s glory, and that of God’s Glory which is given to creatures:

“his glorious grace that he freely bestowed on us in the Beloved.” (v.6)

In Ephesians 3, we have:

“to bring the the news of the boundless (ἀνεξιχνίαστον anexichniastov= unsearchable, 2 occ., Rom.11:33, ichnos=path) riches of Christ (v.8), “…the plan of the mystery hidden for ages in God (v.9) “so that through the church the wisdom of God in its rich variety might now be made known…” (v.10). Further, “in (Christ) we have access in boldness and confidence through faith in him (Christ)” (v.12), Paul prays that the believers “be strengthened in your inner being with power through his (the Father’s) Spirit” (v.16)^{, “}and that Christ may dwell in your hearts through faith…” (v.17) so that they “may have the power to comprehend…the breadth and length and height and depth and to know the love of Christ that surpasses knowledge, so that you may be filled with all the fullness of God.” (vv.19,20).

Clearly, being “filled with the fullness of God” for Paul is synonymous with being filled with Christ, in whom are boundless riches, and love that surpasses all knowledge, the mystery that was hitherto hidden in God himself for all the ages, not only from man but also from the holy angels. The thread that runs through this passage is that the knowledge of Christ is shared by all creatures in Earth and Heaven, thus implying that he is above them all, so we get “might now be made known to the rulers and authorities in the heavenly places” (v.10), “you may…comprehend with all the saints” (v.18), and the fact that this knowledge which is of Christ is an eternal knowledge, God’ s “eternal purpose that he carried out in Christ our Lord” (v.12), implying that God’s activity in Christ is an eternal act, and a mystery hidden for all ages (v.9).

In Galatians, Paul makes a blessing which is solely from Christ:

“May the grace of our Lord Jesus Christ be with your spirit, brothers and sisters. Amen.” (Gal.6:18)

All the fullness of God bodily dwelling

Colossians 1 has a passage in a similar vein: “In Christ” who is “the image of the invisible God” (1:15), the “fullness was pleased to dwell (en auto eudokesen pan to pleroma katoikesai- “the fullness” is the subject of this sentence, most translations add “of God”)…” (1:19). This is affirmed fully “in him all the fullness of deity dwells bodily (en auto katoikei pan to pleroma tes theotetos somatikos) (Col.2:9).

“Theotetos” (Strong’s 2320 θεότης, ητος, ἡ) incredibly is used only once in the Bible, and it can only be translated as “what it means for God to be God”, “God-ness”, “Divinity” or “Godhead”, and defined as “deity” or “state of being God” (differentiated from Strong’s 2305 theiotes, which is again a single occ. in Rom.1:20, and the quality of being God, or “divinity” or “the Nature of God/ Divine Nature”). This is a verse that therefore speaks of the Hypostatic Union. God was pleased that he be fully human and fully God at the same time.

This is also seen in 2Cor.4:4 under relevant sections.

^“He is the reflection of God’s glory and the exact imprint of God’s very being, and he sustains all things by his powerful word. When he had made purification for sins, he sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high, having become as much superior to angels as the name he has inherited is more excellent than theirs.” (Hebrews 1:3The word “exact representation” (kharacter) connotes the imprint of a seal upon a surface, similar to the images sound on coins. the author of Hebrews is saying that Christ is exactly like God (Luke Timothy Johnon, Hebrews a commentary, 2006, p.69 Westminster john Knox Press)

The language draws from Wisdom 7:25-26 which refers to God’s wisdom as “the breath of the power of God, and pure emanation of the glory of the Pantokrator…(and) radiance of the eternal light”

He himself is the Mystery Hidden in God

“The word of God” (1:25), is “the mystery hidden throughout the ages..” (1:26) of which “how great…the riches of the glory (are)…”, and which, “is Christ in you” (1:27) this is reiterated in the next chapter too. To know Christ is to have “all the riches of assured understanding and have the knowledge of God’s mystery, that is, Christ (the variant reading here is ” the mystery of God, both of the Father and of Christ”), in whom are hidden all the treasures of wisdom and knowledge” (Col.2:2,3). We are therefore told to “walk in/ live your lives in Christ” (2:6). The Greek for “perfect” here is teleios– τέλειός, 19 occ. the most apt translation of which might best be taken from the famous verse in Matt.5:48 “be perfect as you heavenly Father is perfect”, where “perfect” seems the only valid translation, and indeed this is the case for the majority of the 19 occurrences of it.

Paul wishes that we be “perfect/ complete/ mature in Christ” (1:28), and “come to fullness in him” (πεπληρωμένοι pepleromenoi, perfect participle) (Col. 2:10). Thus we can see that Christ is the icon of God himself, in whom is fully God and fully the divinity of God. Further as though this were not enough to infer divinity, when we are called to “walk in him”, and be perfected in him and come to fullness in him, it can mean nothing other than that he is, once again, divine. Man does not come to fulness in anything else but God, we cannot ever in “in Christ” unless Christ is omnipresent, and lastly this cannot be taken to merely mean that Christ achieved fullness in God too, else it would imply that all the fullness (pan to pleroma) of theotetos dwelled in everyone, which cannot be.

Further the “the new self…is being renewed in this knowledge according to the image of its Creator” (Col.3:10) and “in that renewal…Christ is all in all” (Col.3:11). There is a simple logical deduction to be had here: if we are being renewed in the image of the Creator, while Christ is that image already, without need for “renewal”. This must mean Christ is none other than the Creator, and the fact that in this “Christ is all in all” cements this notion.

“And he has put all things under his feet and has made him the head over all things for the church, which is his body, the fullness of him who fills all in all.” (Eph.1:22,23)

All God’s Blessings are from Him

“Grace to you and peace from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ” (Phil.1:2)

The one who sanctifies, and for whom we are sanctified by God! (2)To the church of God that is in Corinth, to those who are sanctified in Christ Jesus, (8) ^“He will also strengthen you to the end, so that you may be blameless on the day of our Lord Jesus Christ.”

Grace and peace (3), every possible spiritual gift is received in him:(3)Grace to you and peace from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ (4) I give thanks to my God always for you because of the grace of God that has been given you in Christ Jesus, (5)for in every way you have been enriched in him, in speech and knowledge of every kind— ‑(6a) just as the testimony of Christ has been strengthened among you— so that you are not lacking in any spiritual gift…”

Ephesians 1: Apart from blessings, the blessing of Life itself is “in Christ”: “God…made us alive with Christ (with the variant reading “in Christ”)” (2:5), while it is only “in God” that we can “be seated in the Heavenly places”, while here it says this too is “in Christ” that we are, through his abundant blessings already described “seated with him in the heavenly places (2:6). By the next verse it should be clear that Christ himself is once again identified with God’s “immeasurable” grace”: “in the ages to come he might show the immeasurable riches of his grace in kindness towards us in Christ Jesus” (v.2:7). Hope for eternal life can only be in the source of Life itself. But here Christ is mentioned as that hope: “We, who …set our hope on Christ (v.12).

Christ himself apportions gifts (v.4:11) : “11 He himself granted that some are apostles, prophets, evangelists, pastors and teachers 12 to equip the saints for the work of ministry…”. Paul states “each of us was given grace according to the measure of Christ’s gift.” (4:7) Indeed based upon this foundation, Paul can truly conclude by the end of the letter that we are to be “strong in the Lord” (5:10) before summarizing by launching into his famous “armor of God” passage (vv.5:10-17). We see this also in Phil.4:7,8 “the peace of God (in Christ)…surpasses all understanding…the God of peace be with you”. It seems only reasonable given all of the above that when Paul finally states “I can do all things through him who strengthens me” (Phil.4:13), that he is referring to Christ, the one from whom “nothing (in all heaven and earth) can separate (him) from the love (of)”.

Christ as Creator– the Exitus and Reditus

we are “created in Christ Jesus” (Eph.2:10)

All things were created “in him” (en auto, dat.), through him (di’ autou) and unto him (eis auton). The meaning of eis (Strong’s): to or into (indicating the point reached or entered, of place, time, fig. purpose, result). But if we focus on di’autou, although dia can have two meanings, the case differentiates them. In the accusative it is “because of him”, however in the genitive which we see here, it means “through him”.

^“For in him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things have been created through him and for him” (Col.1:16)

Having described the creation, Paul also describes that Christ is our redemption:

(1Cor.8:6) “Hence, as to the eating of food offered to idols, we know that ‘there is no idol in the world’ and that ‘there is no God except one.’ ‘Indeed, even though there may be so-called gods in heaven or on earth – as in fact there are many gods and many lords –

1. but for us there is one God, the Father,
2. from whom are all things and we for him,
3. and one Lord, Jesus Christ,
4. through whom are all things and we through him”.

Richard Baukham says of this verse (broken up by him as above)

“…has been composed from two sources, both clearly recognisable. One is the Shema, the classic Jewish statement of the uniqueness of God, taken from the Torah itself, recited twice daily vy all observant Jews. It is now commonly recognised here that Paul has adopted the Shema, and produced as it were, a Christian version of it. Not so widely recognised is the full significance of this. In the first and third lines of Paul’s formula (labelled a and c above), Paul has, in fact, reproduced all the words about YHWH in the Shema (Deut.6:4 “The LORD your God, the LORD is one”) but Paul has rearranged the words in such a way as to produce an affirmation of both one God, the Father, and one Lord, Jesus Christ. It should be quite clear that Paul is including the Lord Jesus Christ in the unique divine identity.

He is redefining monotheism as Christological monotheism. If he were understood as adding the one Lord to the one God of whom the Shema` speaks, then, from the perspective of Jewish monotheism, he would certainly be producing, not Christological monotheism, but outright ditheism. The addition of a unique Lord to the unique God of the Shema` would flatly contradict the uniqueness of the latter. The only possible way to understand Paul as maintaining monotheism is to understand him to be including Jesus in the unique identity of the one God affirmed in the Shema`. But this is, in any case, clear from the fact that the term ‘Lord’, applied here to Jesus as the ‘one Lord, is taken from the Shema` itself.

Paul is not adding to the one God of the Shema` a ‘Lord’ the Shema` does not mention. He is identifying Jesus as the ‘Lord’ whom the Shema` affirms to be one. Thus, in Paul’s quite unprecedented reformulation of the Shema`, the unique identity of the one God consists of the one God, the Father, and the one Lord, his Messiah. Contrary to what many exegetes who have not sufficiently understood the way in which the unique identity of God was understood in Second Temple Judaism seem to suppose, by including Jesus in this unique identity Paul is certainly not repudiating Jewish monotheism, whereas were he merely associating Jesus with the unique God he certainly would be repudiating monotheism.

Whereas the first and third lines of the formulation divide the wording of the Shema` between God and Jesus, the second and fourth lines (labelled b and d above) similarly divide between God and Jesus another Jewish monotheistic formula, one which relates the one God as Creator to all things. The description in its undivided, unmodified form is used elsewhere by Paul – in Romans 11:36a: ‘from him and through him and to him [are] all things’. Here the statement simply refers to God, whereas, in 1 Corinthians 8:6, Paul has divided it between God and Christ, applying to God two of the prepositions that describe God’s relationship as Creator to all things (‘from’ and ‘for’ or’to’) and the third of these prepositions (‘through’) to Christ. Although Paul’s formula in Romans 11:36 does not appear precisely in this form elsewhere, there are enough Jewish parallels” to make it certain that Paul there simply quotes a Jewish formulation.

That God is not only the agent or efficient cause of creation (‘from him are all things’) and the final cause or goal of all things (‘to him are all things’), but also the instrumental cause (‘through him are all things’) well expresses the typical Jewish monotheistic concern that God used no one else to carry out his work of creation, but accomplished it alone, solely by means of his own Word and/or his own Wisdom. Paul’s reformulation in 1 Corinthians 8:6 includes Christ in this exclusively divine work of creation by giving to him the role of instrumental cause.”

(Jesus and the God of Israel p.35)

“but in these last days he has spoken to us by a Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, through whom he also created the worlds” (Heb.1:2)

“…he sustains all things by his powerful word. ” (Heb.1:3)

Gives/Sends the Holy Spirit like Yahweh

“Mark alerts the reader…to the messianic significance of Jesus, both as the one who is himself empowered and directed by the Spirit in the fulfilment of his eschatological role and also, remarkably, as the one who “dispenses” the Spirit, a role which in the OT passages… was exclusively that of Yahweh” (R.T.France, The New International Greek Testament Commentary on Mark p.55)

“and see, I am sending upon you what my Father promised” (Lk.24:49)

“when the Advocate comes, whom I will send to you from the Father…” (John 15:26)

He breathes the Holy Spirit upon his followers (Jn.20:22)

“He will baptise you with the Holy Spirit” (Mk.1:8)

“He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and fire.” (Mt.3:11b)

In John Jesus repeatedly states promises the Spirit to all who believe in him (3:3-6 4:10-15, 7:37-39; 19:30; 20:22 -Jerome p.1379)

Here Peter states that Jesus, who ascended to (v.34- for David did not ascend) and exalted “at the right hand of God” (v.33), as was prophesied by David who called him “Lord” (v.34), having received the promise of the Holy Spirit, then “poured out this that you both see and hear” (v.33, also 38):

“Being therefore exalted at the right hand of God and having received from the Father the promise of the Holy Spirit, he has poured out this that you see and hear.” (Acts 2:34)

Referenced in the Old Testament in verses such as Isaiah 11:2, 42:1,61:1

Jesus himself the Paschal Sacrifice and Covenant

However way you interpret these verses personally, just taking the words of Scripture at face value here, for a human to say “take and eat, this is my Body/Blood…this is my Blood of the Covenant…” which is in all the Synoptics and Paul’s writings. This is either completely pagan or is a completely divine claim, there is simply no middle road here. One might further correctly parallel this with the verses from John 6 “unless you eat of he flesh of he Son of Man and drink of his Blood you shall not have life within you…my Flesh is true food indeed…my Blood is true drink indeed…”.

Jesus performing the Miracles of God

Jesus never asks for power in the performance of any of his miracles, a pattern which stretches over a profusion of miracles and exorcisms throughout his ministry.

When Jesus curses the fig tree he merely says “may you never bear fruit…” (Mt.21:19, Mk.11:12-14, 20-25)

We can look at another verse from Matthew. Here the man says “Lord if you are willing (or we could render it “if is your will”)”, and Jesus replies “I am willing (to cure you)”, before literally commanding the miracle in the imperative:

“and there was a man with a skin disease who came to him and knelt before him, saying, “Lord, if you are willing, you can make me clean.” He stretched out his hand and touched him, saying, “I am willing. Be made clean!” Immediately his skin disease was cleansed.” (Matthew 8:2-4)

Again we see in Matthew 9:28,29: “Do you believe that I am able to do this…According to your faith (in Jesus’ ability) let it be done to you”

It is possible to give many examples of this, for example again in Matt.8, Jesus says to the centurion “I will…cure him” (v.7), to which the centurion in a great act acknowledges the authority of Jesus over the natural world “I am not worthy…but only speak the word…for… man in authority…” (vv.8,9), in the last phrase according that authority over the world, life and death to Jesus. Jesus is approving, as is evidenced by his positive reaction to the man’s faith “Jesus was amazed…(at) such faith” (v.10).

Just prior to this in Matthew 7 Jesus says that people calling him “Lord, Lord”, will remind him how they prophesied, cast out demons and done many deeds of power in his name” (v.22). Jesus does not deny that the power came from him, rather the implication is found before and after, that Jesus condemns them because in spite receiving these signs, they failed to produce good fruit (v.19) and hear his word but do not act (v.24). In the parallel verse in Luke (6:46), Jesus simply states “Why do you call me ‘Lord, Lord’, and do not do what I tell you?”

In Mk. we have the passage where the man asks Jesus “if you are able” (9:22) to which Jesus literally seems to retort “If you are able!”- all things can be done…” (v.23) which passage ends with the immortal words “I believe, help my unbelief” (9:24), of course, but the point here is that Jesus is claiming the ability for himself, and also as the one who can strengthen faith, the only posible parallel being Lk.17:5 “increase our faith”. Further on, Jesus refers to “one who does a deed of power in my name” (9:39). Similarly in Luke (5:12,13) the leper asks Jesus “Lord if you choose…” to which Jesus replies “I do choose. Be made clean”.

Similarly in Lk.6:10 Jesus says to the man with the withered hand “stretch out your hand”, Lk.7:14 to the son of the widow of Nain “young man, I say to you, rise!”, Lk.8:53 to the daughter of Jairus “Child, get up!” her spirit returned…”. The woman who has been hemorrhaging “touched the fringe of his clothes, and immediately her hemorrhage stopped” (Lk.8:44), Jesus said at this incident “power had gone out of me” (8:46). There is no reference to this power coming from another, only “your faith has made you well” (Lk.8:48). This is also recounted in Mk.5:25-34 which is similar to Lk., while in Mt.9:20-22, there is no mention of “power going out”, rather “instantly the woman was made well” (v.22), again in 13:12 “Woman, you are set ree from yoru ailment”.

In this verse from Luke, he is implying here that when he performs a miracle, then it is the very “finger of God” acting. One never hears a prophet say “I act by the finger of God”. It is the equivalent of: “when I raise my finger, it is God raising his finger against the demon”. God does not have even have a literal finger, but the God-Man does. In all of this, Jesus is making his agency clear “I cast out”. The parallel verse if Matthew uses “Spirit of God” instead (there are no manuscript variants documented in Metzger’s notes or UBS for Lk.11:20). Again the agency is clearly state “I cast out”. Again, a mere prophet would usually state “it is by the Spirit of God that you are healed”, not ascribing direct agency to himself.

“…but if I cast out demons by the finger of God (en daktylo theou), then the kingdom of God has come upon you.”(Lk.11:20) or in the Matthean version: “but if it is by the Spirit of God that I cast out demons, then the kingdom of God has come to you.” (Mt.12:28).

This incident is not related in the other synoptics. Jesus merely says “Go”, and that is all that is required for the healing. Further the Samaritan that returns praises God and prostrates himself at Jesus’ feet in one continuous act of gratitude, and Jesus accepts his obeisance, and while he is still at his feet remarks: “did none of (the other lepers) return to give glory to God (…) get up”. It is as though Jesus is accepting of the glory to God being given at his feet, since the man has remained there during this remark:

“they called out, saying, “Jesus, Master, have mercy on us!” When he saw them, he said to them, “Go and show yourselves to the priests.” And as they went, they were made clean. Then one of them, when he saw that he was healed, turned back, praising God with a loud voice. He prostrated himself at Jesus’s feet and thanked him. And he was a Samaritan. Then Jesus asked, “Were not ten made clean? So where are the other nine? Did none of them return to give glory to God except this foreigner?” Then he said to him, “Get up and go on your way; your faith has made you well.” (Lk.17:13-19)

Jesus says that the Father “who dwells in me does his works”. This can never be said by a prophetic miracle worker:

“…the words that I speak to you, I do not speak on my own; but the Father who dwells in me does his works. I am in the Father and the Father is in me…in my name ask me for anything (…) that the Father may be glorified in the Son”. (John 14:10-21)

“while you stretch out your hand to heal, and signs and wonders are performed through the name of your holy servant Jesus.” (Acts 4:30)

“But a man named Ananias, with the consent of his wife Sapphira, sold a piece of property; with his wife’s knowledge, he kept back some of the proceeds, and brought only a part and laid it at the apostles’ feet. “Ananias,” Peter asked, “why has Satan filled your heart to lie to the Holy Spirit and to keep back part of the proceeds of the land? While it remained unsold, did it not remain your own? And after it was sold, were not the proceeds at your disposal? How is it that you have contrived this deed in your heart? You did not lie to us but to God!” (Acts 5:1-4)

When they had made the prisoners stand in their midst, they inquired, “By what power or by what name did you do this?” Then Peter, filled with the Holy Spirit, said to them, “…by the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth, whom you crucified, whom God raised from the dead…” (Acts 4:7,8?)

St. Aquinas states:

“…as to the way in which He worked miracles—namely, because He worked miracles as though of His own power, and not by praying, as others do. Wherefore it is written (Luke 6:19) that “virtue went out from Him and healed all.” Whereby it is proved, as Cyril says (Comment. in Lucam) that “He did not receive power from another, but, being God by nature, He showed His own power over the sick. And this is how He worked countless miracles.” Hence on Matthew 8:16: “He cast out spirits with His word, and all that were sick He healed,” Chrysostom says: “Mark how great a multitude of persons healed, the Evangelists pass quickly over, not mentioning one by one . . . but in one word traversing an unspeakable sea of miracles….And thus it was shown that His power was co-equal with that of God the Father, according to John 5:19: “What things soever” the Father “doth, these the Son doth also in like manner” and, again (John 5:21): “As the Father raiseth up the dead and giveth life, so the Son also giveth life to whom He will.” [STIII Q43 Art 4 ad2]

The Calming of the Storm Analyzed

Here is an interesting analysis of Jesus’ calming of the storm miracle by Brant Pitre, Catholic theologian:

The Stilling of the Storm and the Divinity of Jesus
The LORD stills the storm	Jesus stills the storm
Sailors is ships	Disciples in a boat
Stormy wind and waves	Stormy wind and waves
Courage melts away	Disciples are afraid
Cry out to the LORD	Cry out to Jesus
The LORD stills the strom	Jesus stills the storm
Waves of the sea “quiet”	There was a “great calm”
Psalm 107	Mt.8, Mk.4, Lk.8

(Case for Jesus p.124). In Mark’s Gospel, Jesus “meant to pass by” (Mark 6:48). God similarly shows himself to Moses and Elijah (Ex.33:19, 22; 34:6; 1Kings19:11), while both “passing by” and proclaiming his Name. Jesus too when asked responds, and it is in all the three synoptics in the narration of this incident, “ego eimi”- I AM! (p.127-130).

Also compare with the action of God in the Psalms:
“He made the storm be still, and the waves of the sea were hushed” (Psalm 107:29)

Contrast with miracles performed by other Biblical figures

We can contrast this is the miracles of Elijah, who apart from Moses and Elisha could be seen as the greatest miracle workers of the Old Testament. His most memorable miracles are the raising of the boy and the defeat of the priests of Ba’al. Here is the raising of the boy:

“Then he stretched himself upon the child three times and cried to the Lord, “O Lord my God, let this child’s life (or soul) come into him again.” And the Lord listened to the voice of Elijah…” (1Kn.17:21,22)

In the defeat of the priests of Ba’al it is obvious that Elijah is calling to God for help and in all of Moses’ miracles it is made obvious that God and not himself is the one who is working the miracles. This is made very clear throughout the Old Testament when God repeatedly reminds the Israelites that he himself had worked the powerful signs in the freeing of their people from slavery.

It should be made clear that a faithful and dedicated reading of the text, as is illustrated from the abundance of verses in this article should leave one in no doubt of the divinity of Jesus or that the Bible is a very strange book indeed.

Counter-argument addressed

At the same time I require to mention the verses that tend to be used polemically.

When Jesus lifts his eyes to Heaven or speaks to the Father, he is merely demonstrating the trinitarian relationship and oneness with the Father, since on none of these occasions is he asking the Father for a power that he does not himself posses. And when he states at the raising of Lazarus. Here Jesus is claiming omniscience “I knew that you always hear me”, while thanking the Father, which is the wont of the Begotten Son, “you sent me” meaning that Jesus is “from God” not from man (cf. Jn.20:21- “just as the Father sent me so I am sending you”).

“Father, I thank you for having heard me. I knew that you always hear me, but I have said this for the sake of the crowd standing here, so that they may believe that you sent me” (Jn.11:41,42),

And when Jesus says: “I can do nothing on my own accord. I judge according to what I hear, and my judgment is just, because I do not seek my own will but the will of the one who sent me.” (Jn.5:30), this once again merely testifying to the Trinitarian relationships as is the case in all of John, for he says in the same passage of Scripture: “the dead will hear the voice of the Son of God and live (v.25), “the Son (has) life in himself” (v.26), and “(the Scriptures) testify about me” (v.39). Jesus in the very same sentence where he states “I can do nothing of my own accord” is also saying “I judge”. God’s Judgement upon humankind is perfectly carried out by the Son, being in complete concord with the Father. That could be nothing but a divine role, in a trinitarian setting.

“Men of Israel, listen to this message: Jesus of Nazareth was a man certified by God to you by miracles, wonders, and signs, which God did among you through Him, as you yourselves know.” (Acts 2:22)

Again, this is just taken from the beginning of Peter’s discourse in which he is building up to the conclusion through successive and deliberate steps in verse 36:

“Therefore let the entire house of Israel know with certainty that God has made him both Lord and Messiah, this Jesus whom you crucified.”

Having contrasted him with David who died, was buried (v.29) and did not ascend to heaven (v.34) as opposed to Jesus for whom “it was impossible to be held in death’s power” (v.24) and who is David’s Lord (v.34). How could someone in the present time be the Lord of someone who has died in a previous time except that he is God and Lord of both the living and the dead?

So we are called to some amount of interpretative work here by the passages no doubt, but the conclusions cannot be any different in a monotheistic scheme other than that Jesus is indeed God.

PART III: Jesus Possesses the Nature of God

The Divine Name is His

“Therefore God exalted him to the highest place
    and gave him the Name that is above every name” (Phil.2:9)

“seated him at (God’s) right hand…above every name that is named, not only in this age, but also in the age to come” (Eph.1:21)

If someone is thanked in the name of someone else, that could not be real gratitude except if the two were the same:

“…giving thanks to the Father at all times and for everything in the name of our Lord Jesus Christ” (Eph.5:20)

“And He has a Name written on His robe and on His thigh: KING OF KINGS AND LORD OF LORDS.”(Rev. 19:16)

Jesus is Eternal/ Pre-Existent

Here it is apparent Jesus does not have a “beginning” in the manner that humans do at their births, thus implying his eternality and un-createdness “from the Holy Spirit”.

“she was found to be with child from the Holy Spirit (en gastri, echousa ek pneumatos hagiou)” (Luke 1:18, also the angels words in Lk.1:20 “to gar en aute gennethen ek pneumatos estin hagiou”)

“…the child conceived in her is from the Holy Spirit (gar en aute gennethem ek peumatos estin)” (Matt.1:20)

“…And remember, I am with you always, to the end of the age.” (Matt.28:20b)

There are multiple instances of Jesus saying he’s been sent by the Father in the 8th chapter of John. In fact the verses are so strong that even his hostile audience exclaims “Who are you?” (vv.25), and “where is your Father” (v.19). However the first one of these that we look at is from chapter 6. In it it is evident that Jesus is not implying “fromness” merely in the aspect of being “sent fromness”, because a sent fromness could of course also be ascribed to angels and prophets. He clearly equates it rather to the quality of being able to see the Father. Thus it is a fromness of ontology rather than mission:

“not that anyone has seen the Father except he who is from God” (Jn 6:46)

“I know where I have come from and where I am going” (8:14a); “…the Father who sent me” (8:16b); “you know neither me nor my Father…”(8:19b); ” Where I am going, you cannot come”(…)He said to them, “You are from below, I am from above; you are from this world, I am not from this world.” (8:21b,23) “the one who sent me is true” (8:26a); “the one who sent me is with me” (8:29a); “I came from God and now I am here…I did not come on my own, but he sent me” (8:42b)

“I came from the Father and I have come into the world; again, I am leaving the world and am going to the Father” (John 16:28), and again, “I am not alone because the Father is with me” (John 16:32)

“… (his disciples said) by this we know that you came from God” (John 16:3b)

Here John is not merely making a statement of who was born first into the world, which if it was that would be inaccurate anyway since John is born first. This is clearly an ontological statement of pre-existence:m

“John bore witness about him, and cried out, “This was he of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me ranks before me, because he was before me” (Jn.1:15)

It should be obvious that a created thing cannot say “I do not belong to creation”. This is why this verse is an affirmation of divinity. In following Jesus, his disciples are also granted to belong to the world to come:

Jesus is not from this world, rather he is that “which comes down from Heaven”. We are not of this worls only by virtue of beign Jesus’ followers. But Jesus is “not of this world” because he “comes down from heaven”, on the contrary. Further, when he returns where he came, we cannot follow, except through him. Now read these three verses:

“they do not belong to the world just as I do not belong to the world…” (John 17:14)

“it is my Father who gives you the true bread from heaven. For the bread of God is that which comes down from heaven and gives life to the world (32b,33)…I am the bread of life (35)” (John 6)

Jesus is not from this world. Where he is going we cannot go (unless through him)

“…where I am going you cannot follow me now, but you will follow later” (John 13:36)

“I know where I have come from and where I am going, but you do not know where I come from or where I am going (14) Where I am going, you cannot come (21) You are from below, I am from above.

“…because you loved me before the foundation of the world.” (Jn.17:24b)

He will be “revealed”, would imply that his pre-existence was “hidden”, or what else was there to hide? :(ἀποκάλυψιν apokalupsin– 18 occ., this in only used in relation to God’s revelations and Jesus): (6b) ^“…you wait for the revealing of our Lord Jesus Christ.” (1Cor.1:6b)

^“God is faithful; by him you were called into the fellowship of his Son, Jesus Christ our Lord.” (1Cor.1:9)

Here St. Paul hearkens back to the Exodus story where Yahweh himself stands before the rock that is struck by Moses and he states that Christ himself was this “spiritual rock which followed them”, by which he can only mean Yahweh himself, since he was himself the Pillar of Fire and Pillar of Cloud which followed the Israelites in their desert wanderings, further elaborating that the Israelites “ate spiritual food” and “drank spiritual drink”, “from” Christ himself, which again, can only mean that Christ himself fed them miraculous manna and water from the rock:

“and all ate the same spiritual food, and all drank the same spiritual drink. For they drank from the spiritual rock that followed them, and the rock was Christ” (1Cor.10:3,4)

“he himself is before all things” (Col.1:17)

“he is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead”(Col.1:18)

“…to wait for his Son from heaven, whom he raised from the dead—Jesus, who rescues us from the coming wrath.” (1Thess.1:10)

Galatians

The Father sent the Son who in this verse is clearly “pre-existent” as only God can be, since he pre-exists the his own birth. He pre-exists the Law, and therefore prior to any covenant of family that God might have made with human beings, he was already Son of God, and he was never under the Law meant for human beings himself. It is only by the action of the Divine Son in creation that we can even be called God’s children. This is the reason we are “adopted” whereas He is God’s “natural” Son. He pre-exists whatever kinship humanity might have with God. Note that v.6 is also trinitarian in that the Father sent the Holy Spirit “of” the Son into the hearts of humanity as a whole:

“(4) But when the fullness of time had come, God sent (ἐξαποστέλλω- send forth,; ek-“out of”, apostello- “send”) his Son, born of a woman, born under the law, (5) in order to redeem (exagorazo, only used twice in this sense, this and 3:13) those who were under the law, so that we might receive adoption as children (ἵνα τὴν υἱοθεσίαν ἀπολάβωμεν) (6) And because you are children, God has sent the Spirit of his Son into our hearts, crying, “Abba! Father!” So you are no longer a slave but a child, and if a child then also an heir through God.” (Gal.4:4-7 [or heir of God through Christ])

There’s more to be said on this passage from Galatians and the divine sonship. A good way to approach the interpretation is from the dual opposition of the themes of “promise” and “curse”. Paul describes how the law itself is a sort of curse because by it people are condemned “all who rely on the works of the law are under a curse ( κατάραν)” (Gal.3:10). He states the reason in the very same verse, that it is impossible to do literally everything that the law demands. In this sense he asserts that there is a manner of slavery under the law. He is extremely explicit in his condemnation of those who hold to works of the law as redemptive, calling them “foolish” (vv.3:1,3), rather contrasting it with “believing what you heard” (vv.2,5), and were this not the case then “Christ died for nothing” (v.2:21), and “no one is justified by the Law” (v.3:11) and “the law does not rest on faith” (v.3:12) the law cannot make alive/ righteous (v3:21), rather it “has imprisoned all things under the power of sin” (3:22), and that we were “imprisoned and guarded under it” (v.3:23) and that it was “our disciplinarian until Christ came” (vv.24). Paul then links all this teaching this with a favorite and prominent theme in his writings- contrasting the works of the flesh with the works of the spirit (vv.3:3) as seen in Romans Chapter 8. Here as in there, he uses this narrative to describe to us the manner of our spiritual adoption as sons and daughters of God, “in Christ”.

Continuing in the same vein, Paul offers the analogy of the offspring of Sarah and Hagar as the children of the promise/children of slavery (Ch.5:21 onwards). And then he does the following: He states that the promise refers specifically to Christ “the promises (ἐπαγγελίαι epangeliai) were made to Abraham and his offspring (or “seed” σπέρματι spermati)…that is to one person, who is Christ” (v.16). Paul concludes in vv.3:15-18 by saying that the the covenant promises of the Law are not nullified in Christ, rather they are received in him.

Thus it is against this background that St. Paul is stating that God “sends forth” his Son. The Son is then that which does which the Torah could not- he brings freedom, and the Torah held the nation of Israel until this action of the Son came to fruition. To be sure, both actions were of the Father, the sending of the Torah (law) and the sending of the Son. This makes the Son the fulfilment of God’s own Word and Law. Christ is the very Freedom of God that completes what was begun in slavery to his own Law (v.4:1,3,7). We become “one in him” (v.3:28), are “clothed in him” (v.3:27) and “belong to him” (v.3:29), but most significantly that through this “we receive adoption as children” (v.4:5,6,7), and like him, are able to call God “Abba” (v.4:6), through his Spirit that is given us (cf. Romans 8:14-17) “God in sending his own son accomplishes what the law in its weakness because of he flesh could not- my tr., to gar adynaton to nomou en ho asthenei dia tes sarkos, ho theos ton heautou huion pempsas…8:3).

IN SUMMARY, Jesus is the promise of God to his human creatures. Even the promise is only revealed in the fulness of time because it is too much even to conceive, and so it cannot be fully revealed until the right time- not only does God have a Son, but also through him, and through God’s essential attribute of Paternity, he promises to us an adoptive sonship too. That is the quality of what God wants to do for us and the fullest extent of its description. Ourselves and God are of ontologically two completely different natures, natures that could not possibly nor conceivably be more far apart which is precisely why the nature of the promise too is inconceivable. Nevertheless the one nature will “clothe” the other nature (v.27), just as a mother will embrace the child of her own flesh, so that we will be found “in him” (v.3:28). Jesus Christ is truly God because he is ontologically that Nature which likens to divinity, and hence divinity itself.

The next verse shows pre-existence because the prophets are clearly not in the same category as “a son”, since an obvious distinction is being made. If this “son” is just another human being that is born, it does not explain why he is not called a prophet”. The answer can only be is that Jesus transcends these categories:

“Long ago God spoke to our ancestors in many and various ways by the prophets, ² but in these last days he has spoken to us by a Son…” (Heb.1:1)

Here Melchizedek, in the manner that he appears in the Bible without mention of his parents or genealogy is compared to Jesus with the analogous implication that Jesus does not have any natural descent nor even beginning of days in reality. The comparison is meant to show that while in the case of Melchizedek the details of his birth are an intentional textual omission, yet in the case of Christ it is reality. It is very obvious that the writer of Hebrews is using this as a literary device and they do not actually believe that Melchizedek is pre-existent. Melchizedek is being compared to Christ, rather than the other way round.

“³ Without father or mother, without genealogy, without beginning of days or end of life, resembling the Son of God, he remains a priest forever.” (Heb.7:3)

“…but Jesus Christ is the same yesterday today and forever” (Heb.13:8)

Christ’s Pre-Exists his Human Nature

(this is repeated in the Incarnation article)

That Jesus is “fully God” and “fully man” is not optional: 

“in him the fulness of deity was pleased to dwell bodily” (Col.2:9, repeated in 1:19 without “bodily”. “Bodily” implies “in his body”).

and again: 

“ This is how you can recognize the Spirit of God: Every spirit that acknowledges that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God…” (1Jn.4:2,3)

Here “seen by angels” implies that he was hidden before, and only known to them, since he was subsequently “revealed” and only then seen by humans:

 ^“Without any doubt, the mystery of our religion is great: He was revealed in flesh, vindicated in spirit, seen by angels, proclaimed among Gentiles, believed in throughout the world, taken up in glory.” (1 Tim.3:16)

again:

“…For God has done what the law, weakened by the flesh, could not do: by sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and to deal with sin...” (Romans 8:1-4)

Here the implication is that “according to the flesh” is simply not the whole story, when it comes to Christ Jesus. It is in our case, but not in Jesus’ case:
“the gospel concerning his Son, who was descended from David according to the flesh and was declared to be Son of God with power according to the spirit of holiness by resurrection from the dead, Jesus Christ our Lord” (Romans 1:3,4)

“in him all the fullness of deity was pleased to dwell” (Col.1:19, 2:9) indicates that there are two natures- “deity” and that “in” which deity is.

In the book of Hebrews:

Hebrews 10:5-7 speaks of “a body you have prepared for me”, going off from the Septuagintal reading of Psalm 40:6 (The Masoretic text reads “but you have given me an open ear”). This reading makes it obvious that Christ is pre-existent, pre-existing his own Body.

Glory of Yahweh

God does not create his own Glory (just as God does not create his Breath- the Holy Spirit). The Glory of God is God, and we can see that this is applied to Jesus in these verses.

Jesus applies a Psalm of praise to God to himself. In this he uses the Septuagintal version of Psalm 8:2 which has “praise” rather than the MSS which has “strength”:

“Yes; have you never read, ‘Out of the mouths of infants and nursing babies you have prepared praise for yourself’?” (Mt.21:16)

Theophany of Yahweh- the Transfiguration: Jesus “shines from within; he does not simply receive light (as when Moses comes down from the mountain and his face shines with the reflected glory of God) but he himself is light from light. Such glorious theophany is reserved for Yahweh alone.

(Luke 11:29, Mark 8:28, also16:27, ) “Whoever is ashamed of me and my words, the Son of Man will be ashamed of them when he comes in his glory and in the glory of the Father and of the holy angels” (Mt.17:27a) “For the Son of Man is going to come in his Father’s glory with his angels…”; “Truly I tell you, at the renewal of all things, when the Son of man is seated on the throne of his glory…” (Mt.19:28a)

This passage is significant because Jesus is on the throne as God and yet he says that the Father decides who seats at his right and left hand, that is, at the right and left hand of God:

“And they said to him, “Grant us to sit, one at your right hand and one at your left, in your glory.” (Mk.10:37)

Clearly, we are being called to give the same honor to the Father and to the Son, which is identical to that which is said of the glory of each in 13:32. This is the reason it is also true that to fail to honor the Son is to fail to honor the God himself, which is the second half of the verse. The first half of the verse prevents us from interpreting the second half incorrectly: that the honor due to both can be different and it is only as a mark of respect for the greatness of the Father that we honor the “inferiority” of the Son too.

“so that all may honor the Son just as they honor the Father. Anyone who does not honor the Son does not honor the Father who sent him.” (John 5:23,24)

Jesus is said to have “revealed his glory” at the miracle at Cana, 2:11.

“Yet I do not seek my own glory; there is one who seeks it (…) If I glorify myself, my glory is nothing. It is my Father who glorifies me, he of whom you say, ‘He is our God,’ (John 8:50,54)

John 1:1, 14 “…we have beheld his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father.

(John 13:32) “When he had gone out, Jesus said, “Now the Son of Man has been glorified, and God has been glorified in him. If God has been glorified in him, God will also glorify him in himself and will glorify him at once.”

Jesus is naming himself here as the source of joy itself, which is the divine beatitude:

“But now I am coming to you, and I speak these things in the world so that they may have my joy made complete in themselves”(John 17:13)

Jesus does not accept human testimony:

(John 5:34) “I do not accept glory from human beings” (41)

“But when Jesus heard it, he said, “This illness does not lead to death; rather it is for God’s glory, so that the Son of God may be glorified through it.” (John 11:4)

John 16:14 “He [the Spirit of Truth] will glorify me, because he will take what is mine and declare it to you.”

“your name that you have given me” (John 17:11)

“the glory that you have given me” (John 17:22)

“…you have loved me” (John 17:23,24,25)

“ So now, Father, glorify me in your own presence with the glory that I had in your presence before the world existed” (John 17:5)

“ Father, I desire that those also, whom you have given me, may be with me where I am, to see my glory, which you have given me…” (Jn.17:24)

Omniscience: Source of Prophecy and Knowledge

Jesus alone has knowledge of, and access to the Father

Jesus possesses the very knowledge of God. This is not a partial claim, rather he has the total and exclusive knowledge of God as can be seen in the nature and tone of the verse. Jesus is both the knowledge and the Vision of God, and in the Father (Jn.14:20), he and the Father are united in revealing themselves to human beings (15:20)

“At that time Jesus declared, “… no one knows the Son except the Father, and no one knows the Father except the Son and any one to whom the Son chooses to reveal him….” (Mt.11:25-27)

Jesus has knowledge of heavenly matters and even of the fate of men, information that should never be available to any creature, he is able to calmly and matter-of-factedly divulge. He says to the seventy “rejoice that your names are written in Heaven” (Lk.10:20)

To claim to know the Father is to know all knowledge, not to claim particular knowledge ““Righteous Father, the world does not know you, but I know you…” (Jn.17:25a)

Jesus gives prophecy

In none of these instances that follow does Jesus say that his information is coming from another.

People prophesied in his name (Matt.7:22), while in the name of Yahweh in the OT. Jesus himself I constantly predicting the future course of events, never at any point stating that this is merely a message from God. Examples are where Jesus tells the disciples where they will find the colt for his triumphal entry into Jerusalem (Mk.11:1-8), and how to go about Passover preparations for the Last Supper (Mk.13:14-16).

The whole of Matthew 24 is Jesus’ lengthy end-times prophecy, where he says “take note I have told you beforehand” (24:25). In Ch,26 Jesus predicts his death: “my time is near”(v.18), “one of you will betray me” (v.21); “you have said so” (v.25); “you will all become deserters because of me this night” (v.31a); “the hour is at hand and the Son of man is betrayed into the hands of sinners” (v.46). In Mark we have “it is written about the Son of Man that he is to go through many sufferings and be treated with contempt” (9:12).

Jesus prophesies his death and resurrection

In each of the three Synoptics we have the same set of pericopes ending in the Transfiguration: Peter’s confession, the first Passion prediction, and the conditions of discipleship (Jerome 1322)

In Matthew 16:21,17:23, 20:18,19, 23:39; Mark 8:31,32; 9:12-3, 31; 10:33-34, Jesus gives details of his Passion and Cross: he will be “mocked and scourged”; “crucified” (Mt. 20:19); raised by the Father “on the third day” (Mt.16:21; Mk.10:33,34 has the less specific “put to death”, and “after three days”, but the rest reads similarly); Mk.9:9 “until after the Son of Man has risen from the dead”,

and in Luke (9:22) ““The Son of Man must suffer many things and be rejected by the elders, the chief priests and the teachers of the law, and he must be killed and on the third day be raised to life”

Following this we have the second Passion perdiction in (Luke 9:44) “…the Son of Man is going to be delivered into the hands of men”

while later he prophesies the exact day and place of his death : “He said to them, “Go and tell that fox for me, ‘Listen, I am casting out demons and performing cures today and tomorrow, and on the third day I finish my work. Yet today, tomorrow, and the next day I must be on my way, because it is impossible for a prophet to be killed outside of Jerusalem.’ (…) And I tell you, you will not see me until the time comes when you say, ‘Blessed is the one who comes in the name of the Lord.’ ” (Lk.13:32,33,35)

There are many othere instances like Lk.24:6-7, 18:31, 24:44; Jn,16:4, John 2:19-22,

Jesus knew what is in people’s hearts

“But Jesus knew what they were thinking and said, “Why do you harbor evil in your hearts?” (Mt.9:4)

“Then they came to Capernaum, and when he was in the house he asked them, “What were you arguing about on the way?” But they were silent, for on the way they had argued with one another who was the greatest. He sat down, called the twelve, and said to them, “Whoever wants to be first must be last of all and servant of all.” (Mk.9:33-35)

“But Jesus did not entrust Himself to them, for He knew them all. And he needed no one to testify about anyone; for he himself knew what was in everyone “(Jn.2:24,25)

Jesus is the truth

“…everyone who belongs to the truth listens to my voice” (Jn 18:37b)

and in the epistles

1Cor.2:16 equates the mind of Christ with the mind of God, when it states that the gifts of the spirit are spiritually discerned by us, firstly because “we have received… the Spirit that is from God” (v.13) “no one comprehends what is truly God’s except the Spirit of God” (v.11), “these things God has revealed to us through his Spirit” (v.10), and after making the conjunction “who has known the mind of God?” (v.16) it apposes that to “but we have the mind of Christ” thereby equating the mind of Christ to all the foregoing knowledge that is only accessible to the Holy Spirit of God.

(Colossians 2:2-3) “. . . Christ, in whom are hid all the treasures of wisdom and knowledge. 

I’ve also covered 1Cor.4:5 in a previous section on judgement which is also relevant here. “the Lord comes, who will bring to light the things now hidden in darkness and will disclose the purposes of the heart”

1Cor.1:25 “Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God”

Omnipresence

“For where two or three gather in my name, there am I with them.” (Matt.18:20)

“I am going to the Father and you will see me no longer…” (Jn.16:10)

“I in them…” (John 17:23)

“…Christ is all in all!” (cf. Col 3:11b)

Omnipotence

“…the Father shows (the Son) all that he is doing for whatever the Father does, the Son does likewise. (John 5:19,20)”

“all that the Father has is mine” (John 16:15)

“I have conquered the world” (John 16:33)

“all…yours are mine” (John 17:10)

This has all three omnis: ^“3 since you desire proof that Christ is speaking in me. He is not weak in dealing with you, but is powerful in you. For he was crucified in weakness, but lives by the power of God. For we are weak in him, but in dealing with you we will live with him by the power of God. ⁵ Examine yourselves to see whether you are living in the faith. Test yourselves. Do you not realize that Jesus Christ is in you?—¹³ The grace of the Lord Jesus Christ, the love of God, and the communion of the Holy Spirit be with all of you.” (2 Cor.13:3-5,13)

This is omnipotence in the form of Life, Judgement, Act, Glory (also repeated in relevant sections):

The Son is begotten of the Father and yet God. “He has granted the Son to have life” is begetting; “to have life in himself” is divine. Both Father and Son have Life “in themselves” (echei zoen en heauto), and yet the Father is really Father to the Son as “granting” him that Life (edoken zoen). The Son is given “to have life in himself” (zoen, echein en heauto). “Just as the Father” has life in himself, so also does the Son (hosper gar…houtos kai). The import of these words cannot be played down, for the Son has Life, which is the very Quality of God, “just as” the Father does. To have life “in oneself” can only be stated of God:

“Jesus said to them, “Very truly, I tell you, the Son can do nothing on his own, but only what he sees the Father doing; for whatever the Father does, the Son does likewise. The Father loves the Son and shows him all that he himself is doing; and he will show him greater works than these, so that you will be astonished. Indeed, just as the Father raises the dead and gives them life, so also the Son gives life to whomever he wishes. The Father judges no one but has given all judgment to the Son, so that all may honor the Son just as they honor the Father…“Very truly, I tell you, the hour is coming, and is now here, when the dead will hear the voice of the Son of God, and those who hear will live. For just as the Father has life in himself, so he has granted the Son also to have life in himself (26); and he has given him authority to execute judgment, because he is the Son of Man. Do not be astonished at this; for the hour is coming when all who are in their graves will hear his voice and will come out—” (Jn.5 19-29)

In the famous passage, God says to Paul “power is made perfect in weakness”. It seems obvious that this is related to God’s power since it would be absurd for God to be making someone else’s power available to Paul and yet in the next verse Paul says “so that the power of Christ may dwell in me” (1Cor.12:8,9)

Again, “”for as all die in Adam, so all will be made alive in Christ” (1Cor.15:22)

Omnibenevolence

Christ’s loving act “for us” proves God’s loving intent “for us” (note how “for us” is repeated). There is no linguistic sense in which Christ can therefore be separated from God here. This is not even the language of “God sent his Son to die for us”, which might leave some possibility of separating the intentions, here they are the same:

“But God proves his love for us in that while we still were sinners Christ died for us.” (5:8)

It makes sense that only God saves, since after all that we are being saved from is separation from God. How can a creature, who is separate from God, save us from separation from God, unless he were first somehow himself saved, and yet we get no indication that Jesus is saved himself- how can that be? Not a single one of any of the New Testament writings contain even the slightest and most remote suggestion that Jesus himself needed saving in any manner. Yet Paul states here that we are saved “through him” and “by his life”:

^“Much more surely, therefore, since we have now been justified by his blood, will we be saved through him from the wrath of God. ¹⁰ For if while we were enemies we were reconciled to God through the death of his Son, much more surely, having been reconciled, will we be saved by his life.” (5:9,10)

Clearly, the “love of Christ (for us)” (v.35) and the “love of God (for us) that is in Christ” (v.39) are being predicated of the same thing here, which is the love of God. It is clearly “through” the love of Christ that we are “made conquerors”:

“Who shall separate us from the love of Christ? Shall trouble or hardship or persecution or famine or nakedness or danger or sword? ³⁶ As it is written: “For your sake we face death all day long; we are considered as sheep to be slaughtered.” ³⁷ No, in all these things we are more than conquerors through him who loved us. ³⁸ For I am convinced that neither death nor life, neither angels nor demons, neither the present nor the future, nor any powers, ³⁹ neither height nor depth, nor anything else in all creation, will be able to separate us from the love of God that is in Christ Jesus our Lord.”

Note carefully the contrast Paul is making here- God gave that which was most precious to him to save us, more precious than “all things”. Why is one person more precious than all things? Because he is God’s Son. If God did not spare what was most precious to him, why would he withhold anything else?

“He who did not spare his own Son, but gave him up for us all—how will he not also, along with him, graciously give us all things?” (8:32)

Gives Life, Is Life, is Immortal Life

We’ve already quoted Jn 5:26 in which the Son is said to have life “in himself”, in the omnipotence section.

“Then Jesus said to his disciples, “Whoever wants to be my disciple must deny themselves and take up their cross and follow me. For whoever wants to save their life will lose it, but whoever loses their life for me will find it. What good will it be for someone to gain the whole world, yet forfeit their soul? Or what can anyone give in exchange for their soul?” (Matthew 16:24-26)

In the Gospel of John we see repeatedly: “those who believe in Jesus will have eternal life (3.14, 16, 36; 5:24; 6:40, 47). Those given by the Father to Jesus (17:2) and who follow him (10:27,28) have this life. Even the words of Jesus have eternal life (6:68, see Wis 16:26).” (Jerome 1371)

 “the dead will hear the voice of the Son of God and those who hear will live (25)…all who are in their graves will hear his voice and come out (28)” “…the Father has life in himself…the Son also (to) have life in himself (26) “you refuse to come to me to have life” (40) (John 5)

The “Bread of Life” narrative if unique to John, but an important aspect is that Mark seem to provide the space for it, but places this prior to the miracle of the feeding of the five thousand and Jesus’ crossing over to “the other side” (v.45), which then entails the waling on water miracle. John has it on the day after this miracle, when Jesus has fed the five thousand, then crossed over “to the other side” (v.25). Nevertheless, Mark mention in the discourse that precedes that feeding miracle that Jesus “began to teach them ( the great crowd) many things” (v.34). It’s not hard to see that this teaching continued on the other side, with much of the same crowd that crossed over with him (Jn.6:24).

“I am the Bread of life, he who comes to me will not hunger, he who believes in me shall not thirst” (Jn.6:35)

Just “seeing” the Son and believing brings eternal life:

“It is indeed the will of my Father that all who see the Son and believe in him may have eternal life…” (Jn 6:40)

“Again Jesus spoke to them, saying, “I am the light of the world; he who follows me will not walk in darkness, but will have the light of life.” (John.8:12)

Jesus lays down his life and takes it up of his own accord: “For this reason the Father loves me, because I lay down my life in order to take it up again. No one takes it from me, but I lay it down of my own accord. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it up again…” (John 10:17,18)

“I give them eternal life, and they will never perish. No one will snatch them out of my hand (…)” (John 10) 

“Jesus said to her, “I am the resurrection and the life; he who believes in me, though he die, yet shall he live” (John.11:25)

“But these are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Messiah, the Son of God, and that by believing you may have life in his name.” (Jn. 20:31)

“Jesus said to him, “I am the way, and the truth, and the life; no one comes to the Father, but by me.” (Jn.14:6)

Apart from stating that it is “impossible” that Jesus be subject to death, which can only be said of God, he also implies that Jesus Body is also incorruptible (v.24):

“But God raised him up, having released him from the agony of death, because it was impossible for him to be held in its power.” (Acts 2:24)

The Jerome notes:

“Peter proclaims that… jesus is the “author of life” poached up there are four references to this term in the New Testament (acts 3: 15; 5: 31; Hebrews 2: 10; 12: 2 ). The Greek word archegos could be translated as “originator” or “author” (acts 3: 15 and Hebrews 2: 10 ) or leader or founder (acts 5: 31 and Hebrews 12: 2 )…” (p.1465)

“…God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, the God of Jacob, the God our ancestors has glorified his servant Jesus…but you rejected the Holy and Righteous one…and you killed the Author of life, whom God raised from the dead. To this there are many witnesses” (Acts 3:13-15)

“…I no longer live, but Christ lives in me” (Gal.2:20)

“For you have died, and you life is hidden with Christ in God. When Christ, who is your life is revealed…” (Col.3:3,4)

“…To the thirsty I will give from the fountain of the water of life without payment” (Rev 2:17b)

Thus Jesus says that he is the one who raises the dead at the resurrection, even though the Old Testament says that Yahweh is the one who raises the dead at the resurrection. The importance of God being the source of life cannot be overstated, for obvious reasons. Here Jesus is one who can “raise himself up” from the dead. That is truly incredible. Indeed apart from this being a clear claim of the power over death and life, it also tells is that as God, Jesus is always alive, even in bodily death.

As an aside, note the parallel description of the manner in which the “dead” are yet “living” is present even in the Qur’an. Jesus of course has already stated in Matthew- “to God, all are living”, even those who have passed to the after-life:

“And do not say about those who are killed in the way of Allah , “They are dead.” Rather, they are alive, but you perceive [it] not.” (Q 2:154), “ And never think of those who have been killed in the cause of Allah as dead. Rather, they are alive with their Lord, receiving provision, rejoicing in what Allah has bestowed upon them of His bounty, and they receive good tidings about those [to be martyred] after them who have not yet joined them – that there will be no fear concerning them, nor will they grieve” (Q 3:169-170)

Quran also states that only God gives life:

“That is because Allah is the Truth and because He gives life to the dead and because He is over all things competent. and because the Hour is coming, no doubt of it, and God shall raise up whosoever is within the tombs.” (Q 22:6,7)

“For this reason the Father loves me, because I lay down my life in order to take it up again. No one takes it from me, but I lay it down of my own accord. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it up again. I have received this command from my Father.” (John 10:17,18)

Here Jesus, according to the Gospel writer is referring to his own Death and Resurrection. The conversation in the Synoptics is interestingly referenced in the Crucifixion narrative rather than directly “we heard him say…” (Mk.14:58,15:29; Matt.26:60-61, 27:40):

“Jesus answered them, “Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up. ”The Jews then said, “This temple has been under construction for forty-six years, and will you raise it up in three days?” But he was speaking of the temple of his body.  After he was raised from the dead, his disciples remembered that he had said this, and they believed the scripture and the word that Jesus had spoken.” (John 2:19-22)

God also in Death– Here Jesus “tasted death”. Were he a human, he would not need a special “grace of God” to taste death, since humans die anyway:

“…but we do see Jesus,  (…) by the grace of God he might taste death for everyone” (Hebrews 2:9-11).

The Holiness of Yahweh

It is only God who does not have to sanctify himself for his own sake but for others

The holiness of Yahweh “for their sakes I sanctify myself” (John 17:19)

He is King of Heaven

“And he said to her, “What do you want?” She said to him, “Declare that these two sons of mine will sit, one at your right hand and one at your left, in your kingdom.” (Mt.20:21, cf. Mk.10:37 in your glory)

Jesus has a transcendent Kingdom: “Jesus answered, “My kingdom is not from this world. If my kingdom were from this world, my followers would be fighting to keep me from being handed over to the Jews. But as it is, my kingdom is not from here.” (John 18:36)

“He (the Father) has rescued us from the power of darkness and transferred us into the kingdom of his beloved Son” (Col. 1:13)

Jesus, the Law and Word of God

His Word is Eternal

This is a direct reference by Jesus to Yahweh- “The grass withers, the flower fades, but the word of our God will stand forever.” (Isaiah 40:8):

“Heaven and earth will pass away, but my words will never pass away” (Matthew 24:35). This is parallel to God himself speaking (eg.Ps.119:89; Isa.40:8).

Adds to God’s Commandments

“Jesus does not go around shoving the mystery of his divinity down people’s throats. He wants them to freely come to believe in him. He wants them to freely arrive at their own conclusions about who he is and how they are going to respond to him. And in the case of the rich young man, Jesus poses a question that is meant to lead the young man to follow out the implications of his own words. If Jesus is “good,” and God alone is “good,” then who exactly is Jesus? That is the question. Third and finally, Jesus ends by telling the rich young man that the “one thing” he still lacks is to sell all he has and follow him. This ending is essential for unlocking the riddle of his words. Yet it is constantly overlooked by those who claim Jesus is denying that he is God. After making his declaration about the goodness of God, Jesus does something stunning: he adds a command to follow him to the obligation to keep the Ten Commandments. In a first-century Jewish context, this would have been shocking. In Jewish Scripture, the Ten Commandments are written by the very “finger of God” (Exodus 31:18). Jesus uses this idiom in relation to himself in Yet here is Jesus adding the command to follow him as if that was on par with keeping the commandments. As Simon Gathercole writes: “[W]hat is most striking is that having established the one good God as the one who defines what is required of human beings, in the final analysis Jesus is the one who defines what is ultimately commanded…. If God alone is good and able to give commandments, then Jesus does so as well…” (…) In other words, when it comes to the question of “eternal life,” following Jesus is an essential part of the equation. (…) In context, these words are preceded by a riddle-like question and followed by Jesus’s striking injunction to the rich man to sell everything and follow him.

Thus, when we interpret the story of Jesus and the rich young man in its first century Jewish context, we discover that the passage most frequently used to argue that Jesus does not claim to be divine upon closer inspection turns out to be powerful evidence that Jesus does claim to be God. However, he is communicating in a way that is both very Jewish (alluding to the Shema) and very consistent with the messianic secret of his identity. During his public ministry, Jesus wants his audience to ask for themselves: Who is this man? And what is his relationship with the one God?” (Pitre, CfJ, p.151,2)

“and teaching them to obey everything I have commanded you…“ (Matt 28:20a)

“A new commandment I give you: Love one another. As I have loved you, so you also must love one another” (John 13:34).

“A certain ruler asked him, “Good Teacher, what must I do to inherit eternal life?” Jesus said to him, “Why do you call me good? No one is good but God alone. You know the commandments: ‘You shall not commit adultery; You shall not murder; You shall not steal; You shall not bear false witness; Honor your father and mother.’” He replied, “I have kept all these since my youth.” When Jesus heard this, he said to him, “There is still one thing lacking. Sell all that you own and distribute the money to the poor, and you will have treasure in heaven; then come, follow me.” (Luke 18:18-22)

Law and Prophecy is fulfilled “in” Him

The word “in” is significant here. The fulfilment of the Word of God which is Scripture cannot be a human person. There might be some lines and individual prophecies that apply to individuals during the course of Divine Revelation, however for however it would be absurd that the totality of the Word of God to have a human fulfilment, as though the message of God for the Salvation of man were to be “made complete” by and in the being of a human, as though lacking something without that person: God’s plan to save humanity was dependent on, and predicated by a specific human individual would be absurd if hat person were not God himself.

The author of Scripture is also fulfilling Scripture. It is not said “God did this so that Scirpture is fulfilled in Jesus”, rather the Author of Scripture is himself fulfilling Scripture, the writer of the beginning of the Book is also writing its ending.

“Are you not aware that I can call on My Father, and He will at once put at My disposal more than twelve legions of angels? But how then would the Scriptures be fulfilled that say it must happen this way?” (John 17:53,54)

“..today this Scripture is being fulfilled in your sight…”

“For I tell you, this scripture must be fulfilled in me, ‘And he was counted among the lawless’; and indeed what is written about me is being fulfilled.”(Luke 22:37)

Luke continues after the Resurrection:

“Then he said to them, “These are my words that I spoke to you while I was still with you—that everything written about me in the law of Moses, the prophets, and the psalms must be fulfilled.” Then he opened their minds to understand the scriptures, and he said to them, “Thus it is written…” (Lk.24:44-46a)

“Then he began to say to them, “Today this scripture has been fulfilled in your hearing.” (Luke 4:21)

(John 5:39,45,46) “You search the scriptures because you think that in them you have eternal life; and it is they that testify on my behalf… Do not think that I will accuse you before the Father; your accuser is Moses, on whom you have set your hope.If you believed Moses, you would believe me, for he wrote about me.^”

All of which gets us to the correct meaning of the famous Matthew 5:17: “Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.”

Matthew makes a great number of allusions to the fulfilment of Scripture with regards to the early life of Jesus: Matthew 1:22, 2:15, 17, 23, 4:14, 12:17, 21:4

And of course there are many allusions to the fulfilment of Scripture in the Passion narrative.

This is an incredible passage. (I’ve covered John 5 again in the “Jesus claimed Divinity” section): “you search the Scriptures because you think that in them you have eternal life. You study the Scriptures diligently because you think that in them you have eternal life. These are the very Scriptures that testify about me, yet you refuse to come to me to have life. I do not accept glory from human beings…”  (John 5:39,40,41)

Christ himself the New Torah

In the Sermon on the Mount SIX times Jesus says “you have heard it said…but I say to you”, which is really changing the teaching of the Torah that Moses received on the Mountain. For the Jews Moses is like a “divine man” through whom divinity flowed, and there is no one higher than him, therefore to “correct” his teaching cannot be the act of anyone but of God alone.

“…you have one teacher, and you are all students,…you have one instructor, the Christ” (Mt.23:9,10)

“if you continue in my word you are truly my disciples and you will know the truth and the truth will make you free(…)if the Son makes you free you will be free indeed” (Jn.8:31,32,36) “whoever keeps my word will never see death” (8:51,also 52); “But I do know him and I keep his word” (8:55)

Jesus first justifies that fact that his disciples do not fast and then signifies the changes that he is bringing by giving the analogy of the new wine and the cloth bursting the the old wine skins and tearing away from the old cloth (Lk.5:33-39, also Mt.9;14-17, Mk.2;18-22).

(Acts 13:39) “by this Jesus everyone who believes is set free from all those sins from which you could not be freed by the law of Moses.”

Romans 15:5 we are told to live “kata Iesoun”, according to Jesus, in this is harmony among humans, yet we know we are to live according to God’s Word/ Law.

Paul interchanges “Gospel of God” (15:16, 7 NT occ.) with “Gospel of Christ in 15:19, a phrase we find 5 other times in the NT:1Cor.9:12, 2Cor9:13, Gal1:7, Phil1:27, 1Thess3:2)”. Next, if we trace the theme of works in the passage- Paul call himself a worker/ minister “leitourgon” for Christ, but doing priestly work (hierourgounta) for God’s Gospel (which as we have seen is synonymous with Christ’s Gospel). Further, it is Christ accomplishing that work in him, rather than he doing it by himself (v.18 kateirgasato), and that “word and work” (logos kai ergon) is truly Godly in the Power of the Holy Spirit (v.19), consisting of divine signs and wonders (semeion kai teraton). Clearly the Father, Son and Holy Spirit are working miracles in Paul, according to him the vocation of a priest of the Holy Trinity.

“…I have written to you…because of the grace given me by God (16) to be a minister (leitourgon- laos [people]+ ergon{work]. 5occ., Rom13:6; Phil.2:25; Heb.1:7,8:2) of Christ Jesus to the gentiles in the priestly service (hierourgounta, 1occ., from hieros [priest] + ergon [work]) of the gospel of God, so that the offering of the gentiles may be acceptable (euprosdektos, 5occ.), sanctified by the Holy Spirit (hegiasmene in pneumati hagio) ¹⁷ In Christ Jesus, then, I have reason to boast of my work for God (ta pros ton theon). ¹⁸ For I will not be so bold as to speak of anything except what Christ has accomplished through me (kateirgasato di’ emou) to win obedience from the gentiles, by word and deed (logo kai ergo) ¹⁹ by the power of signs and wonders, by the power of the Spirit (en dynamei pneumatos theou), so that from Jerusalem and as far around as Illyricum I have fully proclaimed the gospel of Christ.” (15:15-19)

Indeed Paul can say that he will “come to you…in the fulness of the blessing of Christ (en pleromati eulogias Christou)” (v.29) and “I appeal…by our Lord Jesus Christ and by the love of the Holy Spirit, to join me in earnest prayer to God…” (v.30), again, a tinitarian theme: Paul makes his appeal by the love of God, and “our Lord Jesus Christ” that the Christians pray for him to God. Who else can we appeal to people’s help in the love of if not in the love of God?

Indeed Paul’s gospel itself is the proclamation of Christ, and who does scripture proclaim but God? But Paul proclaims Christ (16:25) finishing with “to the only wise God, through Jesus Christ to whom be the glory forever (v.17), although a textual variant lacks “to whom”. All of Paul’s personal greetings from vv.16:1-16 are to his fellow workers “in Christ”, or “in the Lord”, for Christ, finally with “serve our Lord Jesus Christ” (v.18) and in the “grace of our Lord Jesus Christ” (v.20).

In 1 Corinthians we see Paul telling the Christian believers to be “imitators” of him (5:16) for the reason of his own “ways in Christ” (v.17)”. This is another manner of new Law, that we are being told to imitate a certain person’s ways as the path of religion.

Thus also we oursleves are to be conformed to/transformed into him:

“who will transform (metaschematisei) our lowly body to be like (NRSV, symmorphoi- “conformed” NASB, ASV, ERV; “into the likeness of” NETBible) his glorious body, by the power that enables him even to subject all things to himself.” (Phil.3:21)

“And all of us, with unveiled faces, seeing the glory of the Lord as though reflected in a mirror, are being transformed into the same image from one degree of glory to another; for this comes from the Lord, the Spirit.” (2Cor3:18)

“know that a man is not justified through the law but by faith in Jesus Christ….I died to the law so that I might live for God…if righteousness could be gained through the law, Christ died for nothing” (Gal.2:16-21)

“Bear one another’s burdens, and in this way you will fulfill the law of Christ” (Gal.6:2)

also Eph.3:12, Phil.3:9.

“abolishing the law with its commandments and ordinances, that he might create in himself one new humanity in place of the two, thus making peace,…” (Eph.2:15)

“…Christ will shine on you” (Eph.5:14b)

“Christ loved the church and gave himself up for her, in order to make her holy by cleansing her with the washing of water by the word” (Eph. 5:25,26)

Let’s diagram the verse from 2 Corinthians: “The light of the gospel” is “the light of the knowledge of the glory of God” which is “God himself shining in our hearts” is “the glory of Christ” is “the Face of Christ” and is “the image of God”. When we accept God’s teaching in faith, His Presence in us is a light to our soul and intellect, which is a personal encounter with the “face” of Christ. We are able to have a real encounter with Christ whether or not we were present at the time of the first disciples. God’s message to us is Christ himself, and God dwelling in us is the personal encounter with him. The experience and comprehension that we are given of the Person of Christ is the experience and comprehension of the Nature of God himself:

(2Cor4:4,6) ³ “And even if our gospel is veiled, it is veiled to those who are perishing. ⁴ In their case the god of this world has blinded the minds of the unbelievers, to keep them from seeing clearly the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God. ⁵ For we do not proclaim ourselves; we proclaim Jesus Christ as Lord and ourselves as your slaves for Jesus’s sake. ⁶ For it is the God who said, “Light will shine out of darkness,” who has shone in our hearts to give the light of the knowledge of the glory of God in the face of Christ.”

The Revelation of God is the revelation of his Son. Were this not the case God’s first intervention in the spiritual life of Paul would have been other than this. Rather, it is “Jesus, whom you are persecuting”:

“God…was pleased to reveal his Son to me” (Gal.1:15,16)

“Righteousness from God is not through the Law but through faith in Christ” (Phil.3:9)

In Christ/ Christ dwells in us

The concept of “being in” an entity, is never spoken of with relation to anything but God. There is no creature in whom we are meant to dwell, so also there is no creature who is meant to dwell in us, so the demons that are spoken of in the Gospels are spiritual invaders of the human person not welcome guests. Only the persons of the Holy Trinity: the Father and the Son, which is mentioned also in John, and the Holy Spirit, which is mentioned way back since the Old Testament times are to dwell in us for our advantage, and we in them as our ultimate destiny.

In the Epistles , the phrase “in Christ” appears an astonishing and very specific 100 times (that’s from the Oremus search on the NRSV). There’s an additional 47 instances of “in the Lord” and 9 instances of “in Jesus”. Some of these will be in the manner of Pauline greeting, “my brothers and sisters in Christ” etc., but even this gives an indication of Christs’ unique place in believers’ hearts (quite literally!).

It might be contended that this usage is merely metaphorical, as being “in” someone merely means being “like-minded” with that person. However one should consider a couple of things in this relation: First, the Christian Scriptures do contain the concept of God the Holy Spirit ontologically indwelling persons. Therefore if Christ is God, then it would not be unreasonable to suppose that a similar implication might be possible. Second, this kind of usage is quite unique to the Bible, I cannot think of a parallel of it in any other religious texts, where whose leader is spoken of in these terms.

Finally, several NT verses do necessitate an ontological indwelling, and therefore we might justifiably infer that the others which might preserve some ambiguity, can and even must be interpreted through this lens.

For example, the reason in the following verse that we are one body, is that we have consumed the same Christ in the drinking of bread and wine:

“The cup of blessing that we bless, is it not a sharing in the blood of Christ? The bread that we break, is it not a sharing in the body of Christ? Because there is one bread, we who are many are one body, for we all partake of the one bread.“

(1Cor.10:16,17, cf. “…all of you are one in Christ Jesus” (Gal.3:28)).

Some might argue that this is simply intended metaphorically, to mean something like: “because we all commemorate and thereby acknowledge Christ’s sacrifice of his life for us, so we are one ‘body in belief’”. However the subsequent verses speak of the “eat of the altar of the Lord” (trapezes kyriou methechein, vv.18-21), thus indicating that Paul has a real sacrifice in mind (this is not my own argument, it might be from Brant Pitre). Taken in conjunction with just the next chapter in 1 Cor. 11:27-32, it is hard to avoid a literal implication of bodily indwelling. (we will analyse this passage shortly).

Further This theme of indwelling is found in well-Known passages from the, namely John’s “Bread of Life” narrative and the Synoptic Last Supper narratives. My point is that textually, this is not an incorrect reading, theological differences and difficulties notwithstanding. Because these verses indicate indwelling through a literal “consumption”, we talk about this in detail in the article Eucharist in the Christian Religion. Here it will suffice to indicate that the indwelling indicated is literal, whatever the means.

This (and subsequent verses) is the basis for the theme in Paul’s letters of the mystical Body of Christ. It is precisely because there is a literal indwelling, that we can have a mystical unity between the believers. Christ dwells in the individual believer’s hearts, but a greater unity in numbers leads to a greater presence of Christ himself in the church as a result, this ” building up the body of Christ”: “to equip the saints for the work of ministry, for building up the body of Christ,”Eph 4.12); “there is one body and one Spirit” (Eph.4:4) “ So we, being many, are one body in Christ, and every one members one of another” (Rom.12:5). Then, “you are the body of Christ” (hymeis de este soma Christou 1Cor.11:27 only 2 occ. “the body of Christ” in this context); “we must grow up in every way into him who is the head, into Christ” (Eph.4:15)“: that is, the gentiles have become fellow heirs, members of the same body” (Eph.3:6).

In John 14 (11-20) we have the description of Trinitarian in-dwelling (both in us and mutually) in Jesus’ reply to Philip:

“…“Whoever has seen me has seen the Father. How can you say, ‘Show us the Father’? Do you not believe that I am in the Father and the Father is in me? The words that I say to you I do not speak on my own, but the Father who dwells (meno) in me does his works. Believe me that I am in the Father and the Father is in me, (…) If you love me, you will keep my commandments. And I will ask the Father, and he will give you another Advocate, to be with you forever. This is the Spirit of truth, whom the world cannot receive because it neither sees him nor knows him. You know him because he abides with you, and he will be in you. “I will not leave you orphaned; I am coming to you. In a little while the world will no longer see me, but you will see me; because I live, you also will live. On that day you will know that I am in my Father, and you in me, and I in you.”

In the “I am the Vine” passage in John 15:1-11, the term “abide” is used 11 times (of which thrice as abiding in love) to imply the co-indwelling of us, Jesus and the Father, using the analogy of the manner in which branches are part of and “in” the vine, as organically dependent upon it.

Paul asserts “…Christ is in you…” (Rom.8:10 ei de Christos en hymin), in a passage which absoolutely necessitates a spiritual indwelling, because the referent for this “in you” is “the Spirit of God” which is clearly also predicated of the “Spirit of Christ” which “dwells in you”, all in the same verse! He repeats this “Do you not realise that Christ is in you?…” (hotu Iesous Christos en hymin 2Cor.13:5). These represent the two times we see that particular phrase in the NT.

Further we read that Christ: “fills all in all” (Eph.1:22-23), that “God’s glorious mystery is Christ in you” (Col.1:27). One would think that the reason that were such a great mystery was precisely because it was more than mere metaphor.

Finally there are verses which perhaps might be taken as metaphorical, but I would contend there is much more than that being implied:

“let us put on/endow ourselves/clothe ourselves with the Lord Jesus Christ (alla endysasthe ton Kyrion Iesoun Christon)…” (Rom 13:14); “as many of you as were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ (hosoi gar eis Christon ebaptizesthe, Christon endysasthe)” (Gal.3:27). We are “in Christ” (1Cor.1:2,30), called into “communion with him” (eis koinonian 1Cor.1:9), “we have the mind of Christ” (1Cor2:16), we are “infants in Christ” (1Cor.3:1), implying we are growing to be like him. “God…has shone in our hearts…” (theos…hos elampsen in tais kardias hymas 2Cor.3:6). 2 Cor.12: “the power of Christ may dwell (ἐπισκηνώσῃ, 1occ., epi + skenoo- to make a tent, abide) in me”, “that Christ may dwell (kataoikesei, 45 occ.) in your hearts through faith…” (Eph 3:17), “I am again in the pain of childbirth until Christ is formed in you” (morphothe in hymin Gal.4:19) “it is no longer I who live (zo) but it is Christ who lives in me” (Gal.2:20), Phil. 3:9: “…and (that I may) be found in him…” (included in Galatians commentary)

In John’s First Epistle again we get the language of “abiding in him/you” (Gr. meno- remain, 118 occ.):

(1 Jn. 2.6) “whoever says, ‘I abide in him’, ought to walk just as he walked“; (1 Jn. 2:28) “And now, little children, abide in him…”; (1 Jn. 3:9) “Those who have been born of God do not sin, because God’s seed abides in them; they cannot sin, because they have been born of God”; (1 Jn. 3:24) “All who obey his commandments abide in him, and he abides in them. And by this we know that he abides in us, by the Spirit that he has given us”; (1 Jn. 4:13) “By this we know that we abide in him and he in us, because he has given us of his Spirit”.

PART IV- Jesus Saying He is God

Jesus asserts that there is no other rabbi or teacher other than him. He is saying that none is to be called teacher or rabbi, and yet that title is constantly used of himself. This is a strong claim that can be predicated of none but God (v.23:8-10).

““Don’t let anyone call you ‘Rabbi,’ for you have only one teacher, and all of you are equal as brothers and sisters. And don’t address anyone here on earth as ‘Father,’ for only God in heaven is your Father. And don’t let anyone call you ‘Teacher,’ for you have only one teacher, the Messiah.”

Jesus says to the pharisees that his disciples may not fast while he is with them. This is an incredible assertion- how could a mere human stipulate that service due to God be suspended while he were present, save that he were himself God. It is as though Jesus is stating that his mere presence is beatific. This is directly related verses like Is.62:5, (chatan- bridegroom, see Jerome p.1249) “as a young man marries a woman, so will your builder marry you”, Isaiah 54:5 “your Maker is your husband (boalayik, from baal- to marry)”, the language of betrothal (Hos.2:19,20); Jeremiah 2:2 God saying to Israel “how as a bride you loved me”:

“Now John’s disciples and the Pharisees were fasting, and people came and said to him, “Why do John’s disciples and the disciples of the Pharisees fast, but your disciples do not fast?” Jesus said to them, “The wedding attendants cannot fast while the bridegroom is with them, can they? As long as they have the bridegroom with them, they cannot fast. The days will come when the bridegroom is taken away from them, and then they will fast on that day.” (Mk.2:18-20)

“Thomas answered him, “My Lord and my God!” (Jn. 20:28) If it were untrue, Jesus would have corrected him, but He didn’t- rather he commended Thomas precisely because he had “believed”, and commended those that would come after him down the ages that would also come to believe.

“You call me Teacher and Lord—and you are right, for that is what I am (εἰμὶ γάρ= for I am). So if I, your Lord and Teacher, have washed your feet, you also ought to wash one another’s feet.” (John 13:13)

God of Moses, David and Daniel

Jesus proclaims himself God of Moses, God of Daniel and God of David. The allusion is obvious to the Jews and most so to the Temple authorities who are steeped in the study of Scripture, there is no doubt in their minds as to what he is alluding to. It is little surprise when the high priest himself tears his robes and makes the blasphemy charge in response:

“Again the high priest asked him, “Are you the Messiah, the Son of the Blessed One?” Jesus said, “I am (Lord of Moses- Exodus 3:14); and ‘you will see the Son of Man (God of Daniel- Daniel 7) seated at the right hand of the Power (God of David- Psalm 110:1), and ‘coming with the clouds of heaven (Daniel 7 again).’” (Mk.14:61,62)

St. Basil of Caesaria states: “Matthew 16:27 when Stephen beheld Jesus standing at the right hand of God; Acts 7:55 when Paul testified in the spirit concerning Christ that he is at the right hand of God; Romans 8:34 when the Father says, Sit on my right hand; Hebrews 8:1 when the Holy Spirit bears witness that he has sat down on the right hand of the majesty of God; we attempt to degrade him who shares the honor and the throne, from his condition of equality, to a lower state?” (“On the Holy Spirit”, Ch.7)

God of God- “the Objection” is a Confirmation!

Look at this argument here: The “God of God” Paradox and Prophecy

One with the Father

“All things have been handed over to me by my Father; and no one knows the Son except the Father, and no one knows the Father except the Son and anyone to whom the Son chooses to reveal him. Come to me, all you that are weary and are carrying heavy burdens, and I will give you rest…” (Matt. 11:27-28)

(John 8.19b) ”…‘You know neither me nor my Father. If you knew me, you would know my Father also.”

John 14.7 “If you know me, you will know my Father also. From now on you do know him and have seen him.’”

“What the Father has given me is greater than all else and no one can snatch it out of the Father’s hand. The Father and I are one…” (John 10:30)

“If I am not doing the works of my Father, then do not believe me. But if I do them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works, so that you may know and understand that the Father is in me and I am in the Father.” (John 10:37,38)

“Jesus said to him, “Have I been with you all this time, Philip, and you still do not know me? Whoever has seen me has seen the Father. (9)

How can you say, ‘Show us the Father’? Do you not believe that I am in the Father and the Father is in me? (10)

The words that I say to you I do not speak on my own; but the Father who dwells in me does his works. Believe me that I am in the Father and the Father is in me; but if you do not, then believe me because of the works themselves. “(John 14:11)

and in “Temple-ing” themselves in them (Jn,14:21-23), abiding in their love (15:20)

Making himself equal to God– the Blasphemy charge: Jn:8,10; Mk.2

“Why does this fellow talk like that? He’s blaspheming! Who can forgive sins but God alone?” (Mk.2:7)

“the one who sent me is with me; he has not left me alone, for I always do what is pleasing to him” (Jn.8:29b)

“We are not stoning You for any good work,” said the Jews, “but for blasphemy, because You, who are a man, declare Yourself to be God” (33). Jesus replied, “Is it not written in your Law: ‘I have said you are gods’?  If those to whom the word of God came were called ‘gods’—and the scripture cannot be annulled— can you say that the one whom the Father has sanctified and sent into the world is blaspheming because I said, ‘I am God’s Son’? (Jn.10:33-36)

Here Jesus is quoting the Psalms:

“I say, “You are gods, children of the Most High, all of you; nevertheless, you shall die like mortals and fall like any prince” (Psalm 82:6,7)

The verse in John 10 has lead to some discussion as to just what exactly it was that Jesus meant by his referral to Psalm 82. This becomes simpler if one puts oneself in God’s “shoes”, in order to understand this from the divine perspective. The overarching and completely justified concern here is this: God has, in no uncertain terms commanded his people that they are to have no other gods before him and that such blasphemy is deserving of death. God is now stood before those very people to whom he gave that Law in the first place, claiming the divine prerogative with “my sheep hear my voice…” (v.27), “I give them eternal life” (v.28), “the Father and I are one” (v.30) and “the Father is in me and I am in the Father” (v.38).

Jesus understands the cause of the the people’s concern and indignation, since he gave them the blasphemy laws in the first place. He therefore conveys to them through the use of Psalm 82 that while it would indeed be blasphemous for, in the Jews’ own words “only a human” (v.33), to make himself equal to God, yet he is not “only a human” at all, rather he is “the one the Father has sanctified and sent into the world” (v.36). If there is a nuance by which men can be called “gods” (v.35,36) and “children of the Most High” (Ps.82) without blasphemy, then so also must they consider that there be the possibility of nuance in Jesus’ own relation to the Father that precludes such a charge, since he is “God’s Son” (v.36).

There is a manner in which a human being can be elevated to the status of a Son of God without violating monotheism, so also the nuance by which he is God’s Son precludes any violation of monotheism implied in his assertion of being “in the Father” and “one” with him. Jesus is not a competitor-God for monotheism, rather in that he his “in God” in the manner of Exodus 23 “my Name will be in him”. Similarly there is a nuance by which the people can be called elohim non-competitively as long as the nuance is appreciated.

I go into such a detailed analysis of this passage because it is among some of the strongest affirmations of Jesus’ deity and so it also becomes the focus of the strongest objections. The objection is typically that the Jews “misunderstood what Jesus was saying”, and that Jesus is merely claiming divinity in the manner that all humans can (supposedly) claim it. In fact Jesus is not claiming divinity in this manner rather what he is claiming is exemplified in v.30 and 38, which in human claims. Stating “well this is just human stuff anyway, move along, nothing to see here” does not solve the problem for the people. This is why they are far from satisfied and “try to arrest him” following the supposed “reassurance” (v.39). Were Jesus truly attempting to downgrade the claim he need only have states “I am not God/equal to God”. Further, the human author of the Gospel of John certainly gives no indication of a misunderstanding here either, he himself iterates in 5:18 “making himself equal to God”. Jesus is certainly bringing a difficult teaching here, and he is not going to fully reveal that mystery until many things have first come to pass.

The late Michael Heiser asserted that Jesus is alluding to non-human supernatural beings in the divine council anyway in John 10. These are the ones “to whom the word of God came” in Psalm 82. The first few verses of this Psalm are one of the central passages for his “divine council” theology, which is understandable, given the literal phrase is present here. Jesus is not backing down on his divine claim, rather he is pointing out that there are others that Scripture rightfully calls elohim. This theme of Psalm 82:1-8 is strongly corroborated in Psalm 89:5-8. Verse 82:7 “nevertheless you will die like mortals” only seems to affirm that they are after all not mortals. Heiser also points out and criticizes the majority scholarly view is that this might be an allusion to Exodus 23? where Jethro advises Moses to appoint judges and that these judges might be seen as representing the judgements of God himself and therefore elohim. The reason for this link to the Torah is that Jesus says “have you not read in the Law” and alludes to “the people to whom the word came”. He considers this a rather convoluted and unnecessary and unjustified hermeneutic which does not solve the problem of the blasphemy charge.

Summary:

In my opinion, both views do the same thing, Jesus is not climbing down from the primary claim “I and the Father are one” (v.30) and “I am in the Father and the Father is in me” (v.38). He seems, by his appeal to Psalm 82, to be calling for understanding, if we were to paraphrase Hamlet “there are more things in the unseen realm, Horatio, than there are in your imagination”. The word elohim, and Heiser is clear about this, is used to describe disembodied spirits in the Bible and ANE culture, not ordinary humans. Jesus is saying to his listeners “listen, we are able to call elohim beings that you do not comprehend, and we are able to call then sons of God in a manner that is not antithetical to monotheism because it is not competitive with God’s uniqueness, and so also by the grace that I will give to you “those to whom the word of God came”, in a way that no one could even understand, you will genuinely be God’s sons, albeit by adoption, and also non-competitively. All this is possible because God is more than one person, and he has a Son, non-competitively in the first place. I am that Son. I think the meaning that is packed into the passage is extremely profound and far transcends what most commentators will mention. It’s focus is the interplay between the people’s accusation “you are making yourself equal to God” (v.33) and Jesus; three affirmations “I am God’s Son” (v.36), v.30 and v.38 of oneness with the Father, and the fulcrum, which is the possibility of authentic divine sonship for creatures “scripture cannot be annulled” (v.35). For humans this means that there is the possibility of an authentic “divinizing of human nature”, something that the Jews would have concerns about regarding blasphemy violations. For our concept of God it means that there is the reality of a Divine Son, something that the Jews would also have concerns regarding. Jesus is pointing out that the former is in their own Scripture already.

Other instances of blasphemy charges:

“For this cause therefore the Jews were seeking all the more to kill Him, because He not only was breaking the Sabbath, but also was calling God His own Father, making Himself equal with God,” (John 5:18)

Again, those who take a “Unitarian” view of the Bible will argue here that the Jews simply did not understand their own theological confession, which is that Jesus and God can be one without both being God. I don’t understand how they arrive at such a possibility, but even looking at the text of John 5, the author himself is stating “he (Jesus) was making himself equal to God”. The author of John too believed Jesus implied equality with God by his words.

(this is also repeated in the Son of God section but is pertinent here):

The High Priest when accusing him of blasphemy precisely because it is an exclusive claim to Sonship: (Luke 22:69-71) “…All of them asked, ‘Are you, then, the Son of God?’…’”, (Mt. 26:63) “…tell us if you are the Messiah, the Son of God”(27:40) “if you are the Son of God come down from the Cross”; John 19:7 “The Jews answered him, ‘We have a law, and according to that law he ought to die because he has claimed to be the Son of God.’”

Jesus saying he is Yahweh

Jesus applies to himself events in the history of Israel that pertain to God the Father:

“Therefore I send you prophets and wise men and scribes, some of whom you will kill and crucify, and some you will scourge in your synagogues and persecute from town to town,…O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, killing the prophets and stoning those who are sent to you! How often would I have gathered your children together as a hen gathers her brood under her wings, and you would not!” (Mt. 23:34,37)

Jesus uses an idiom “finger of God” describing a direct act of Yahweh Exodus 31:18:

“But if I drive out demons by the finger of God, then the kingdom of God has come upon you.” (Lk. 11:20)

I AM

In the Gospel of John, Jesus repeatedly claims the Divine Name for himself. We are sometimes challenged as to what the reason is that the name of Yahweh does not appear in the New Testament. The most obvious reason is that Jesus is Yahweh. When he speaks with the Father he addresses the Father as “Father”, because Jesus is already Yahweh. And Jesus is the Salvation of Yahweh – “Yehoshua”. The Jerome (p.1396) does not consider the first two of these is any more than self-identification, but the rest are a reference to the divine Name indeed:

“Jesus said to her “I am” (ego eimi), the one that is speaking to you” (4:26).

“”But he said to them, “it is I” (ego eimi); do not be afraid” (6:20).

I’ve heard it commented that the right term to use if Jesus were merely making a general identification of himself would have been “ego eimi emauton” which is “it is I myself”, rather than “I am”. Here Jesus is doing more than making a general identification, rather he is identifying himself as God did to Moses as “I AM WHO AM”. And because he is, they disciples have nothing to fear.

We see the ego eimi no less than thrice in John. As far as I understand it, ego eimi can either be used for “I am”, but also, as in the case of the passage from Matthew “it is I” (I, it is). (“I am he” would read ego eimi autov or semautov). However these two meanings only work in a given context, the former is a response to a question “are you?”, and the latter is in the manner announcing one’s presence. But apart from these specific contexts, by itself it is an incomplete sentence with a verb lacking its object. Because the use is unique the comparison to the only other place where such a usage is found is unavoidable, and this is the divine self-appellation in the Old Testament.

“Jesus said to them, “you will die in yourselves unless you believe that I am he (me pisteuste hoti ego eimi)” (8:24);

“when you have lifted up the son of Man then you will realise that I am he” (8:28)

and finally the well-known verse where Indeed Jesus is referring to Abraham’s encounter with the three Persons of God at the Oaks of Mamre : “Very truly, I tell you, before Abraham was, I am (he).” (8:58)

“…I tell you this now, before it occurs, so that when it does occur, you may believe that I am (ego eimi).” (John 13:19)

The Jerome (p.1396) note that in the following, the implied meaning is seen from the effect upon the soldiers who “stepped back and fell to the ground” (v.6).

“I AM” (John 18:5); “I AM” (John 18:6); “I AM” (John 18:8)

Richard Baukham writes: “The Gospel of John…places on the lips of Jesus during his ministry another of the characteristically Deutero-Isaianic declarations of unique divine identity…the concise statement “I am he”, in Hebrew ‘°ni hu’, usually translated in the Septuagint Greek as ego eimi (‘I am’), the form in which it appears in John’s Gospel. This sentence occurs as a divine declaration of unique identity seven times in the Hebrew Bible: once in Deuteronomy, in one of the most important monotheistic passages of the Torah, and six times in DeuteroIsaiah (Deut 32:39, Isa.41:4; 43:10, 13; 46:4; 48:12; 52:6).

It serves to declare, in the most concise of forms, the uniqueness of God, equivalent to the more common ‘I am YHWH’. On the lips of Jesus in the Fourth Gospel, its ambiguity, in contexts where it need not be recognized as the uniquely divine self-declaration, enables it to identify Jesus with God, not in a blatantly explicit way which, even in the Fourth Gospel, would be inappropriate before Jesus’ exaltation, but in a way which becomes increasingly unambiguous through the series of seven absolute “I am” sayings (John 4:26; 6:20; 8:24, 28, 58; 13:19; 18:5, 6, 8).

It is certainly not accidental that, whereas in the Hebrew Bible there are seven occurrences of ‘ani hu’ and two of the emphatic variation ‘anoki hu’ (Isa. 43:25; 51:12), in John there are seven absolute ‘I am sayings, with the seventh repeated twice (18:5, 6, 8) for the sake of an emphatic climax (thus seven or nine in both cases). The series of sayings thus comprehensively identifies Jesus with the God of Israel who sums up his identity in the declaration ‘I am he’. More than that, they identify Jesus as the eschatological revelation of the unique identity of God, predicted by DeuteroIsaiah…”

(Baukham, JGI p.46)

Alpha and Omega

Richard Baukham quotes the verses below and states: “The three phrases – the Alpha and the Omega, the first and the last, the beginning and the end – are clearly treated as equivalent phrases (since Alpha and Omega are the first and last letters of the Greek alphabet), and are claimed both by God (1:8; 21:6) and by Christ (1:17; 22:13), in declarations of unique divine identity strategically located in the opening and closing sections of the book. These declarations are modelled on those of YHWH in DeuteroIsaiah (44:6; 48:12; cf. 41:4)…” (JGI p.45):

“I (God) am the Alpha and the Omega,” says the Lord God, who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty.” (Rev.1:8)

“Fear not, I (Christ) am the first and the last” (Rev 1:17a, 2:8)

“I (God) am the Alpha and the Omega, the beginning and the end” (21:6)

“I (Christ) am the Alpha and the Omega, the first and the last, the beginning and the end” (22:13)

Son of Man is God

Jesus refers to Himself as the ‘Son of Man’ a total of 83 times in the four Gospels. The best inference for the use of this odd term, is that He is referencing the Daniel 7 prophecy. In that passage we have shown that we can make a strong argument for the divinity of this Son of Man figure in the prophecy article.

In John 8:28 above in which Jesus links “the Son of Man” and “I AM” in one sentence.

“…The high priest asked Him “Are you the Christ, the Son of the Blessed one?” And Jesus said “I am, and you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of Power, and coming with the clouds of Heaven” (Mk.14:61, Matt.26:64, Lk.22:69).

This is a tremendous passage in which the Son of Man is “revealed”:^“Then he said to the disciples, “The days are coming when you will long to see one of the days of the Son of Man, and you will not see it. They will say to you, ‘Look there!’ or ‘Look here!’ Do not go, do not set off in pursuit. For as the lightning flashes and lights up the sky from one side to the other, so will the Son of Man be in his day. But first he must endure much suffering and be rejected by this generation. Just as it was in the days of Noah, so too it will be in the days of the Son of Man.They were eating and drinking, and marrying and being given in marriage, until the day Noah entered the ark, and the flood came and destroyed all of them. Likewise, just as it was in the days of Lot: they were eating and drinking, buying and selling, planting and building, but on the day that Lot left Sodom, it rained fire and sulfur from heaven and destroyed all of them —it will be like that on the day that the Son of Man is revealed.” (Luke 17:20-30)

In the 9^th chapter of John the blind man worships Jesus when he reveals himself as the “Son of Man”.

There are several other Son of Man verses in this article itself, I have not collated all the themes here.

The Messianic Secret

lastly we must mention the Messianic secret. It is extremely evident even in the shortest and possibly earliest written gospel of mark now that is that would be this is not willing to reveal during his ministry. This cannot merely be the fact that he is come deliver a final kind of text book. Because we know that the secret is related to his identity, “who” he is rather than the contents of his message. That identity is defined by his relationship with God and also his power over the supernatural realm.

it would be highly unusual, and even aberrant that a mere prophet or human would decline to reveal their true identity. There is no profit in the biblical narrative, or even among the traditions of other religions where the prophet employs such a device and indeed there is no fathomable reason as to why they would. It is absolutely incumbent and  religious duty of a prophet to reveal his identity and who he represents. All of this only makes sense if Jesus’s intention is that his ministry reveal something about him bye study and contemplation that is the point of his teaching. In other words Jesus intends that his ministry reveal his identity rather than he revealed the full understanding of his identity by himself and the reason can only be that this revelation transcend the usual prophetic categories and is therefore given in the mode that also transcends normative prophetic teaching. And it must also be the case that God’s wisdom apprehends the fact that this ministry is sufficient basis for that revelation to be received, in concert with the subsequent teachings of the church and Saint Paul. If indeed the short ending of Mark is true for example, then this makes complete sense.

PART V- Jesus is called Yahweh

Matthew

Stating that Jesus is Yahweh who saves

In the Gospel of Matthew, the Angel tells Joseph who Jesus is: ^“She will bear a son, and you are to name him Jesus, for he will save his people from their sins.” (Mt.1:21) Paraphrasing the angel, what he is saying is “…name him “Yahweh saves (Jesus)”, for he will save”. It is clear that it is Jesus who is doing the saving here.

The Lord coming into his Temple

Matthew in the third chapter (vv.1-4) references this verse which talks of God’s “coming into his Temple”. This can only either be a prophetic reference to the very body of Mary, else that of a hitherto unfulfilled Third Temple. Christian must necessarily hold to the former, as the same verse contains the reference to John the Baptist:
“See, I am sending my messenger to prepare the way before me, and the Lord whom you seek will suddenly come to his temple. The messenger of the covenant in whom you delight—indeed, he is coming, says the Lord of hosts. But who can endure the day of his coming, and who can stand when he appears?” (Mal.3:1,2)

Jesus is betrayed for the price of God

“Then was fulfilled what had been spoken through the prophet Jeremiah, “And they took (or “I took”) the thirty pieces of silver, the price of the one on whom a price had been set (or “the price of the precious one”) on whom some of the people of Israel had set a price, and they gave (or “i gave) them for the potter’s field, as the Lord commanded me.”.” (Matt.27:9,10)

This is taken from a passage from Zechariah in which God says that it is the price paid for himself!

““And I took my staff, Beauty, and cut it in two, that I might break the covenant which I had made with all the peoples. So it was broken on that day. Thus the poor of the flock, who were watching me, knew that it was the word of the Lord. Then I said to them, “If it is agreeable to you, give me my wages; and if not, refrain.” So they weighed out for my wages thirty pieces of silver. And the Lord said to me, “Throw it to the potter”—that princely price they set on me. So I took the thirty pieces of silver and threw them into the house of the Lord for the potter” (Zecheriah 11:10,13).

There is much more to be said of this enigmatic prophecy which we have discussed in the appropriate place, in the article on Messianic prophecy.

Mark reveals Jesus as God who is to come into his Temple

The deity of Jesus is implied in the opening passages of the Gospel of Mark. First, John the Baptist appears for the specified purpose of preparing the way for the Lord:

“The beginning of the good news of Jesus Christ, the Son of God. As it is written in the prophet Isaiah, “See, I am sending my messenger ahead of you, who will prepare your way;…” (Mk.1:1,2)

This is a prophecy of “God sending God” to execute Judgement:

“See, I (God)am sending my messenger (John the Baptist) to prepare the way before me (God), and the Lord whom you seek will suddenly come to his temple. The messenger of the covenant (Jesus, in this instance) in whom you delight—indeed, he is coming, says the Lord of hosts. But who can endure the day of his coming, and who can stand when he appears? For he is like a refiner’s fire and like fullers’ soap; he will sit as a refiner and purifier of silver, and he will purify the descendants of Levi and refine them like gold and silver (cf. Mt.3:12)., until they present offerings to the Lord in righteousness Then the offering of Judah and Jerusalem will be pleasing to the Lord as in the days of old and as in former years.” (Mal.3:1-5)

Again the way is being prepared for God:

“the voice of one crying out in the wilderness: ‘Prepare the way of the Lord, make his paths straight,’” (Mk. 1:3)

“Comfort, O comfort my people, says your God.Speak tenderly to Jerusalem, and cry to her that she has served her term, that her penalty is paid, that she has received from the Lord’s hand double for all her sins. A voice cries out: “In the wilderness prepare the way of the Lord, make straight in the desert a highway for our God. Every valley shall be lifted up, and every mountain and hill be made low; the uneven ground shall become level, and the rough places a plain. Then the glory of the Lord shall be revealed, and all people shall see it together, for the mouth of the Lord has spoken.” (Isaiah 40:1-5)

Jesus is “grieved at their hardness of heart” (Mk.3:5) in parallel with similar phraseology ascribed to God in the Old Testament (eg. “But they rebelled and grieved his Holy Spirit” Is.63:10). This assumes even more significance in that it is the kind of phraseology that is not used of any other Biblical figure.

Mark says Jesus is Lord here, if you note the construction. Having healed the blind man, Jesus sends him away and asks him to tell “how much the Lord has done for you”, Mark then states that the blind man went away and began to proclaim how much Jesus had done for him. (Mark 5:19,20) In Luke it carries the same import, Jesus tells the man “return home, and declare how much God has done for you. So he went away, proclaiming throughout the city how much Jesus had done for him” (Lk.8;39)

The Markan Narrative speaks for itself:

Mark attributes to Jesus powers and actions that are attributable only to God, like the forgiveness of sins. But woven into the narrative of Jesus is the narrative of Yahweh himself in the Old Testament. For Jesus delivers his disciples from the sea, defeats the forces of Satan when he drives out demons and drowns a legion of demons in the water as he did with Pharaoh’s own legions. Having done so, he then manifests to them on the mountain at the transfiguration event just as Yahweh manifests to the Israelites on Mt. Sinai. Further the words “listen to him” are said by the Father which are the same that is uttered by God in the Old Testament of the Angel of the Lord “in whom I will put my Name”.

John

Isaiah saw his Glory

According to John, Isaiah saw Jesus as Yahweh: “Isaiah said this because (or “when”) he saw his glory and spoke about him.” (Jn,12:41) what Isaiah said is quoted immediately prior and is taken directly from Isaiah 6:10 about Yahweh: “And so they could not believe, because Isaiah also said, “He has blinded their eyes and hardened their heart, so that they might not look with their eyes, and understand with their heart and turn— and I would heal them.” (Jn.12:40). And Abraham saw Jesus as Yahweh too (John 8)

He is the Living Water

Jesus claims to be able to give “living water that will become in them a spring…gushing up to eternal life” (John 4:10-14), and that that this is the “gift of God”. Again Jesus repeats this in 7:37-39. In the Old Testament, God states that he is himself this “Fountain of living water” (Jer.2:13; 7:13; Isaiah44:3, and see also Rev.22:1)

Only God has Ascended and Descended

“Who has ascended to heaven and come down? Who has gathered the wind in his fists? Who has wrapped up the waters in a garment? Who has established all the ends of the earth? What is his name, and what is his son’s name? Surely you know!” (Prov.30:4)

“No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven—the Son of Man.” (John 3:13)

The Word of God

“The Word was God” (theos en ho logos literally God was the word”, in Greek because the “logos” has the definite article, it becomes the subject, “The Word was God”. In Greek which Is an “inflected language, word order is not as important as the inflections and placement of articles and so on, unlike English where word order is of first priority. This use of theos in Greek is called the unarthrous (without  article) predicated nominative). Daniel Wallace devotes an entire chapter to this, Greek Grammar: Beyond the Basics, p255 onward). Opponents of Trinitarianism have made every attempt to subject this confession of Jesus’ divinity in John 1. The arguments all centre around John’s choice to append the article to “logos” but not to “theos”, so let us examine this.

First possibility- it means “the Word was a God”- this is arguably a valid translation, since Greek does not have an indefinite article, and so it’s use has to be translated in context. In this case it would be out of context because it becomes polytheistic to say “a God” where there is no indication that polytheism is the author’s explicitintent.

Second possibility, why did John not add the article “the”? would it not have resolved the controversy? No it would not, because you would then have “The God was the Word”, which is incoherent.

There is a third argument which states that the use is “qualitative”, and adjectival use, so we get “the Word is of  Divine Nature” which is fine from the Christian point of view also, although I am not aware that this adjectival use of “theos” has precedent. The NEB paraphrase “what God was, the Word was,” brings out the meaning of the clause as successfully as a paraphrase can.”

“…for wisdom, the fashioner of all things, taught me. There is in her a spirit that is intelligent, holy, unique, manifold, subtle, mobile, clear, unpolluted, distinct, invulnerable, loving the good, keen, irresistible, beneficent, humane, steadfast, sure, free from anxiety, all-powerful, overseeing all, and penetrating through all spirits that are intelligent, pure, and altogether subtle. For wisdom is more mobile than any motion; because of her pureness she pervades and penetrates all things. For she is a breath of the power of God, and a pure emanation of the glory of the Almighty; therefore nothing defiled gains entrance into her. For she is a reflection of eternal light, a spotless mirror of the working of God, and an image of his goodness. Although she is but one, she can do all things, and while remaining in herself, she renews all things; in every generation she passes into holy souls and makes them friends of God, and prophets; for God loves nothing so much as the person who lives with wisdom…” (Wisdom of Solomon 7:22-28)

“before the hills I was brought forth…when he marked out the foundations of the earth then I was there like master worker. and I was daily his delight, rejoicing before him always, rejoicing in his inhabited world and delighting in the human race.” Wisdom of Solomon 7 is quoted earlier under the section “the wisdom of God” (Proverbs 8)

The Spirit of God

“When they had come opposite Mysia, they attempted to go into Bithynia, but the Spirit of Jesus did not allow them” (Acts 16:7)

(Rom.8:9,10) “However, you are not in the flesh but in the Spirit, if indeed the Spirit of God dwells in you. But if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he does not belong to Him. But if Christ is in you, though the body is dead because of sin, the Spirit is life because of righteousness”

“for I know that through your prayers and the help of the Spirit of Jesus Christ this will turn out for my salvation” (Phil1:19)

1 Peter 1:11 “seeking to know what person or time the Spirit of Christ within them was indicating as He predicted the sufferings of Christ and the glories to follow.”

Galatians 4:6 “are sons, God has sent forth the Spirit of His Son into our hearts, crying, “Abba! Father!”

Note that in Matthew 10:20 Jesus says to his disciples “for it is not you who speak, but the Spirit of your Father speaking through you.”

Acts and Epistles call Jesus God

Lord of David

In his Pentecost sermon, Peter first states that it is “impossible” for Jesus to die, further quoting David stating “the Lord said to my Lord”, and indicating that David was using the appellation “my Lord” for Jesus. The only manner in which Jesus, a descendant of David could be his master, is if he were his God. He relates this directly to the prophecy in Joel “in those days I will pour out my Spirit v.18… then everyone who calls upon the name of the Lord will be saved”, and states that it is Jesus as Lord who pours out the Spirit, even repeatedly stresses Jesus as Lord (v.25,34,36), so the association is unmistakeable. Some might bring up the polemical objection that Peter is stating that Jesus is a “man” etc.. However reading on, we see Peter say that it is “impossible” for Jesus to die, and in his next speech states he is the “author of life”, apart from all that we have already stated. In the next chapter Peter clarifies that neither he nor John is reponsible for healing miracles ,rather it is attributed to the power of Jesus:

“But God raised him from the dead, freeing him from the agony of death, because it was impossible for death to keep its hold on him (…) God has raised this Jesus to life, and we are all witnesses of it. ³³ Exalted to the right hand of God, he has received from the Father the promised Holy Spirit and has poured out what you now see and hear. ³⁴ For David did not ascend to heaven, and yet he said, “‘The Lord said to my Lord: “Sit at my right hand ³⁵ until I make your enemies a footstool for your feet.”’ ³⁶ “Therefore let all Israel be assured of this: God has made this Jesus, whom you crucified, both Lord and Messiah.” (Acts 2:24, 32-36, see from v.16)

Other places

One who is called “Lord of all” can not possibly be a human being:

“You know the message he (God) sent to the people of Israel, preaching peace by Jesus Christ—he is Lord of all” (Acts 10:36).

“to them belong the patriarchs, and from them, according to the flesh, comes the Messiah, who is over all, God blessed forever. Amen.” (Rom.9:5)

The “Lord of glory” can refer to no one but God. This is not “the glorious Lord”, but the Lord “of” glory. It reminiscent of “mi hu zeh, melesh ha-kabowd? Yahweh zeh melekh ha-kabowd” (who is he the king of Glory? He is Yahweh, the king of glory” (Ps.24:7):

“None of the rulers of this age understood it, for if they had, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory” (1Cor.2:8)

Clearly the attributes of Christ, particularly his love surpass all knowledge and themselves represent the fullness of God in the believer, since it is Christ himself who will dwell in them. Thus we find a clear equivalence between made between Christ and God here:

“and that Christ may dwell in your hearts through faith, as you are being rooted and grounded in love. I pray that you may have the power to comprehend, with all the saints, what is the breadth and length and height and depth and to know the love of Christ that surpasses knowledge, so that you may be filled with all the fullness of God.” (Eph.3:17-19)

Christ “fills all things” (Eph.4:10)

There are a couple other clear allusions to Christ’s divinity described in the section on Ephesians.

“the image (eikona- icon) of the invisible God” (Col.1:15) This should be taken to mean that the very nature and character of God have been perfectly revealed in him, in him the invisible has become visible.

“For in him all the fullness (pan to pleroma) of God was pleased to dwell” (Col.1:19) This is a manner of stating that there is not a degree of difference between the full glory of God and the glory of God that is in Christ, hence the use of the term “fullness”

again the phrase is repeated here:

“for in him the fulness of deity dwells bodily (pan to pleroma tes theotetos somatikos)” (Col.2:9)

“…Christ will shine on you” (Eph.5:14b)

verses that follow the Granville-Sharpe rule:

The G-S rule is states essentially that is the first of two “substantives” (like noun/participle) has the article, and the second, separated from it by “and” (kai) does not, then the second refers to the first. These two passages follow this rule:

2Cor4:3-6 (see in the Jesus fulfils the Law in himself section)

“…while we wait for the blessed hope and the manifestation of the glory of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ (prosdekhomenoi…ten epiphanaian tes doxes tou megalou theou kai soteros hemon Christou Iesou)” (Titus 2:13)

“Simon Peter, a servant and apostle of Jesus Christ, To those who through the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ have received a faith as precious as ours:” (2 Pet.1:1)

“James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ” (Jam.1:1)

The “Rghteous one” of Acts

The Jerome notes:
“Jesus is portrayed as the “righteous One”. The adjective “righteous” used substantively with reference to Jesus is found only in Acts ( 3: 14; 7: 52; 22: 14),. The substantive usage implies that the adjective is used as a title and not only as a reference to Jesus’ character. God is also called the righteous one in the OT (Psalm 129: 4; Zeph 3: 5; Dan 9: 14 ). Isaiah links the word “righteous” with the suffering servant of the Lord who will “bear their iniquities” (Isaiah 53: 11 )…. ” (p.1465)

Romans 1

This is an incredible sequence from Paul, parts of which we have already seen in some of the previous sections under the aspects of pre-existence, belonging to him, being called by his name:

“Paul, a servant of Christ Jesus, called to be an apostle, set apart for the gospel of God, ² which he promised beforehand through his prophets in the holy scriptures, ³ the gospel concerning his Son, who was descended from David according to the flesh ⁴ and was declared to be Son of God with power according to the Spirit of holiness by resurrection from the dead, Jesus Christ our Lord, ⁵ through whom we have received grace and apostleship to bring about the obedience of faith among all the gentiles for the sake of his name, ⁶ including you who are called to belong to Jesus Christ…” (Romans 1:1-5)

What we are really seeing here is an affirmation of the two natures of Christ “his (God’s)son who was…according to the flesh…according to the Spirit…”.

It is significant here that with regards to the flesh:

Jesus is born of human “seed”,

while according to the Spirit:

“was declared to be Son of God…our Lord (v.4) through whom we have received grace and apostleship…for the sake of his Name, including you who belong to Jesus Christ…”

This is a powerful verse affirming the two Natures and ascribing divinity to one

Galatians

First Paul says (v.1) that he is sent “neither by human commission/authorities”, “but through Jesus” and again in v.10 Paul indicates he is contrasting human vs. God, and says “if I were still pleasing people I would not be a servant of Christ”. Finally in v.11, “the Gospel that was proclaimed by me is not of human origin/ not from a human source” (v.12), “but through a revelation of Jesus Christ”. Elsewhere he has called “the light of the gospel” to be the “glory of Christ who is the image of God” (2Cor.4:4) and that “God…has shone in our hearts to give the light of the knowledge of the glory of God in the Face of Jesus Christ” (2Cor.4:6) :

“¹Paul an apostle—sent neither by human commission nor from human authorities but through Jesus Christ and God the Father, who raised him from the dead— ² and all the brothers and sisters with me, To the churches of Galatia: ³ Grace to you and peace from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ, ⁴ who gave himself for our sins to set us free from the present evil age, according to the will of our God and Father, ⁵ to whom be the glory forever and ever. Amen. ⁶ I am astonished that you are so quickly deserting the one who called you in the grace of Christ and are turning to a different gospel— ⁷ not that there is another gospel, but there are some who are confusing you and want to pervert the gospel of Christ. (…) ¹⁰ Am I now seeking human approval or God’s approval? Or am I trying to please people? If I were still pleasing people, I would not be a servant of Christ. ¹¹ For I want you to know, brothers and sisters, that the gospel that was proclaimed by me is not of human origin, ¹² for I did not receive it from a human source, nor was I taught it, but I received it through a revelation of Jesus Christ.” (Gal.1:1-7,10-12)

Philippians

Beginning with the first chapter, we’ve already discussed how the opening verses speak of being made blameless on “the day of Christ”, a term repeated more than once.

Worship in Hebrew Scripture: The Letter to the Philippians begins with Paul “servant (Gr. doulos)” of Christ Jesus. This is a significant appellation- For Paul to call himself “servant” of Christ is not analogous to serving an earthly master, because Christ no longer walks the Earth physically. This is repeated in several other places and can only be seen as worship. This aligns with the Old Testament term for worship which is simply “aved” (עָבַד Strong’s 5647, eg.Ps.100:2), itself from exactly the same root word for “serve” or “servant” “eved”. In addition “kabed” (כָּבַד- Strong’s 3513) can be used, which is the same word for glory, honor and actually translated “to be heavy, weighty, or burdensome” (eg.Isaiah 29:13) . Sachach ( שָׁחָה- shacach, Strong’s 7812, Hitpael- וְיִשְׁתַּחֲו֣וּ eg.Gen.19:1) means “to bow down”, and is also therefore used for persons bowing. Finally שָׁרַת (sharat, Strong’s 8334, 97 occ.) we see used in the sense of serving or ministering, eg. at the Altar of the Lord eg..Deut.18:4. Thus I would strongly suggest that whether it is God that is being worshipped or not is strongly suggested by context, rather than merely the specificity of word usage.

In the second section, Paul is again speaking of Christ as the reference point for faith and religion. His imprisonment “for Christ” (1:13) has made the brethren “confident in the Lord” (v.14), and with the stated goal that “Christ is proclaimed” (vv.1:15,16,17.18) “in every way” (1:18), with help too, to be expected from the “Spirit of Christ” (1:19). The language is taken to a climactic level with Paul stating that “Christ will be exalted now as always in my body”, “whether by life or death” (1:19), “living is Christ and dying is gain”(1:21), “my desire is to be with Christ” (v.23), “(my) boasting is (abundantly) in Christ” (v.26), “live your life in a manner worthy of the Gospel of Christ” (v.27) “for (God) has granted you the privilege of believing in Christ (and) of suffering for him” (v.29).

Carmen Christi: There is evidence that the “Carmen Christi” the Christological hymn of Philippians 2 is relating a hymn that is known to the Church rather than merely composing the himself. One of the reasons for thinking this is that when the hymns is back-translated into Hebrew is falls perfectly into poetic metre. Given that St. Paul’s writings are among the earliest Church writings, if the Carmen Christi predates even them, it is a sign of just how early the deity of Jesus is accepted in the Church.

Phil 2:6: “who, though he was in the form of God, did not regard equality with God as something to be exploited…”

Here worship of God and boasting in Christ is in the same breath. It would seem impossible not to equate the two: “we…worship in the Spirit of God (or God in the Spirit) and boast in Christ…” (3:3)

Following this, Paul launches into another famous sequence: “Everything”, “all things”, “all gains” (vv.7,8) is “loss” (v.7,8) and “rubbish” (v.8) in order to “gain Christ Jesus my Lord”, the mere knowledge of is of “surpassing value” (v.8,10), that we may be “found in him” (v.9) and “become like him in his death”, in which is to be found our own resurrection (v.10). Righteousness from God is not through the Law but through faith in Christ: (v.9). We are “taken hold of” by Christ (v.12); God’s heavenly call is in Christ (v.14). The “enemies of the Cross” have for their “god…their belly” (v.19) Lord Jesus is our Savior from Heaven (v.20), transforming our bodies, humiliated in this world to be conformed to his own glorious body (v.21).

1&2 Corinthians examined by Chris Tilling

Paul is “called to be an apostle of Christ Jesus”, this means that Jesus is the one who sends. But the Old Testament prophets are alwasy sent forth by God himself. We call upon the Name of Jesus, your Lord and ours, in whom we are sanctified, and for whose day, (v.2) the one on which he is to be revealed (v.7), we are are to be made blameless (hence sanctified) (v.8) also who is himself our sanctification (v.30).

Bear in mind that it would be extremely unusual for a Jew to refer to someone as “Lord” in the same sentence as one is talking about God, yet in the 31 verses of this chapter, Paul calls Jesus Lord 8 times and “God” appears 23 times. The last of those in v.31 clearly refers to Jesus, thus giving us a reference for understanding all the profuse use of the term in relation to Jesus throghout his letters: it is always a divine reference. We see v.31 uses “Lord” (kyrios) directly for God, from an Old Testament prophetic reference, and in a passage that is clearly being predicated of Jesus.

Grace and peace (3), every possible spiritual gift is received in him:

“(3)Grace to you and peace from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ (4) I give thanks to my God always for you because of the grace of God that has been given you in Christ Jesus, (5)for in every way you have been enriched in him, in speech and knowledge of every kind— ‑(6a) just as the testimony of Christ has been strengthened among you— so that you are not lacking in any spiritual gift…”

He will be “revealed” (ἀποκάλυψιν apokalupsin– 18 occurences, this is only used in relation to God’s revelations and Jesus): (6b) ^“…you wait for the revealing of our Lord Jesus Christ.”

Divine Sonship: (9) ^“God is faithful; by him you were called into the fellowship (koinonia, 19occ.) of his Son, Jesus Christ our Lord.”

Here St. Paul hearkens back to the Exodus story where Yahweh himself stands before the rock that is struck by Moses and he states that Christ himself was this “spiritual rock which followed them”, by which he can only mean Yahweh himself, since he was himself the Pillar of Fire and Pillar of Cloud which followed the Israelites in their desert wanderings, further elaborating that the Israelites “ate spiritual food” and “drank spiritual drink”, “from” Christ himself, which again, can only mean that Christ himself fed them miraculous manna and water from the rock:

“and all ate the same spiritual food, and all drank the same spiritual drink. For they drank from the spiritual rock that followed them, and the rock was Christ” (1Cor.10:3,4)

“So whether we are at home or away, we make it our aim to be pleasing to him. For all of us must appear before the judgment seat of Christ, so that each may receive due recompense for actions done in the body, whether good or evil. Therefore, knowing the fear of the Lord, we try to persuade people, but we ourselves are well known to God, and I hope that we are also well known to your consciences” (2Cor.5:9-11; cf.with phobos in relation to God 2Cor7:1). 

“Believe in” (Gal.2:16) cf Rom.4:17 pisteuo

Contrast with idolatory (1Cor10:14-22)

cf. Rom1:25

(2 Cor.7:21-32) “Were you a slave when called? Do not be concerned about it. Even if you can gain your freedom, make the most of it. For whoever was called in the Lord as a slave is a freed person belonging to the Lord, just as whoever was free when called is a slave belonging to Christ (…) I want you to be free from anxieties. The unmarried man is anxious about the affairs of the Lord, how to please the Lord”

(1Thes.4:5) “that each one of you know how to control your own body in holiness and honor, not with lustful passion, like the gentiles who do not know God;”

(1Cor.2:2) “For I decided to know nothing among you except Jesus Christ and him crucified.”

(1Cor.10:14-22) “ Therefore, my beloved, flee from the worship of idols.  I speak as to sensible people; judge for yourselves what I say. The cup of blessing that we bless, is it not a sharing in the blood of Christ? The bread that we break, is it not a sharing in the body of Christ?  Because there is one bread, we who are many are one body, for we all partake of the one bread. Consider the people of Israel: Are not those who eat the sacrifices partners in the altar? What do I imply, then? That food sacrificed to idols is anything or that an idol is anything? No, I imply that what they sacrifice, they sacrifice to demons and not to God. I do not want you to be partners with demons. You cannot drink the cup of the Lord and the cup of demons. You cannot partake of the table of the Lord and the table of demons.  Or are we provoking the Lord to jealousy? Are we stronger than he?”

cf.Rom1:25)

(2Cor.12:8,9)  ^“Three times I appealed to the Lord about this, that it would leave me, but he said to me, “My grace is sufficient for you, for power is made perfect in weakness.” So I will boast all the more gladly of my weaknesses, so that the power of Christ may dwell in me. Therefore I am content with weaknesses, insults, hardships, persecutions, and calamities for the sake of Christ, for whenever I am weak, then I am strong.”

Cf. Rom.10:1

Sin “against Christ” (1Cor.8:12). 

(1Cor.10:6-9) “Nevertheless, God was not pleased with most of them, and they were struck down in the wilderness. Now these things occurred as examples for us, so that we might not desire evil as they did. Do not become idolaters as some of them did, as it is written, “The people sat down to eat and drink, and they rose up to play.” We must not engage in sexual immorality, as some of them did, and twenty-three thousand fell in a single day. We must not put Christ to the test, as some of them did, and were destroyed by serpents”

Ephesians- Jesus is ascribed all the “Omnis”

St. Paul in his Letter to the Ephesians effectively predicates all the divine attributes of Omnipotence, Omnibenevolence and Omnipresence and omniscience to Christ, the template for which is laid out in his address at the very beginning of the first chapter.

Omnipotency:

I’ve covered already the portion that deals with “every spiritual blessing” being in Christ earlier.

Faith is itself is defined as “in Christ” (v.1:15, also Gal.2:16-21, Eph.3:12, Phil.1:29; 3:9, Col.1:4, 2:5),

Having “abolished the law” Christ, “creates (in himself) a new humanity”, while through his death on the Cross, he “puts to death” the violence of men toward God, thus “making peace”. Consider the significance of an act of Christ that puts an end to evil, and that the prerogative for such an act could only be divine.

“He has abolished the law together with its commandments and ordinances, that he might create in himself one new humanity (between Israel and the unbelieving Gentiles) in place of the two, thus making peace, and might reconcile both groups to God through the Cross, thus putting to death that hostility through it.” (2:15,16).

Christ is equated to God- those who are “without Christ” have “no hope” and are “without God in the world” (2:12), these godless people are “brought near” to God “in Christ” (2:13), he himself is “our peace” (2:14, also 2:15,17) who breaks down the hostility that the godless bear.

In giving himself up for her, Christ the Savior and “Head”(v.5:23) of the Church washes the Church through the water and word (the gospel about Christ), thereby that it may be in splendor, without spot and wrinkle, holy and without blemish to present it to himself (vv.5:25,26). This is repeated “so that you may be holy and blameless…children of God without blemish…on the day of Christ” (Phil.2:15,16), once again showing an that this blamelessness God desires for his children is the manner in which they are presented to his Son. The inference would be that we are to be made holy for God, who alone is holy and worthy of receiving the purity of our sacrifice, therefore Christ must be God to be its recipient as “presentable to”. Again, Here the it is Christ, not the Father who is the subject of the entire passage from verse 15 so that when it says “…before him” (v.22) , it should be quite obvious that the “him” refers to Christ: “he has now reconciled in his fleshly body through death, so as to present you holy and blameless and irreproachable before him” (Col.1:22).

Next we see a trinitarian verse, “Through him both of us have access in one Spirit to the Father.” (2:18), and the assertion that the very “Household of God” (2:18) or the “Holy Temple of the Lord” (2:21) and the “dwelling place for God” (v.2:22) is “in Christ” (2:21), who is its “cornerstone” (2:20) “in whom” the rest are “built together” (v.2:22).

The oneness of God himself is equated with the oneness of Christ, the oneness of our hope which is in him, the Oneness of true religion (4:4,5):

“4 there is one body and one Spirit, just as you were called to the one hope of your calling, 5 one Lord, one faith, one baptism, 6 one God and Father of all, who is above all and through all and in all.”

Again it is clear that Christ is being acquainted with God here, since it has been repeatedly said that we must be in the likeness of Christ, attain to “the measure of the Full stature of him”, and to the “full knowledge of the Son of God” (v.4:13) “growing in every way into Christ who is the Head, into Christ” (v.4:15). Thus “putting away…your old self” (v.4:22) to be “renewed in the spirit of your minds and to clothe yourself with the new self” is to be “created in the likeness of God” (v.4:24). This clearly equates Christ and God.

Omnibenevolence:

In Christ is holiness and blamelessness. Further, it is “in love” that we are given these spiritual blessings in Christ:

“just as he chose us in Christ before the foundation of the world to be holy and blameless before him in love.”  (v.4)

“Through” the Divine Child we too are God’s children, so also “through him” it is that we receive the inheritance of due to children. This means that it as though we are truly divinized in Christ, after all only that which is of the same nature and dignity as another can receive the inheritance of the other. But if we are to be “divinized” is Christ can only mean that Christ is divine himself. The “pleasure” (v5) which God has in his Son (Matt.3:17) is therefore the same as that which he has in making us his sons and daughters:

“He destined us for adoption as his children through Jesus Christ” (v.5)

“In Christ we have … obtained an inheritance…” (v.11)

Jesus redeems us to God, this redemption is to do with “the riches of God’s grace”, which itself is “in Christ”. Only God redeems, and here, God redeems in Christ, so Christ is God:

“In him we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of our trespasses, according to the riches of his grace which he lavished on us” (v.7)

Omnipresence:

God’s will is to gather up literally “all things”, “in Christ”: “…his will, according to his good pleasure that he set forth in Christ, as a plan for the fullness of time, to gather up all things in him, things in heaven and things on earth.” (vv.8-10)

He again equates Christ to God, stating that He fills the whole Universe (4:8-12):

“8 Therefore it is said (…) 10 (Christ)…ascended far above all the heavens, so that he might fill all things.)

Omniscience:

God’s Will which is hidden from “all things”, cannot possibly be hidden from Christ since it is “in Christ”/”set forth in Christ”. Truly, we can ascribe to Christ “all wisdom and insight”, and God’s own will is “in Christ” (v.5- “his will…through Christ”; v.9- “his will…in Christ”; v.3- “God chose…in Christ”; v.6- “freely…in Christ”; v.8 “his will/plan (v.10)…in Christ”; v.11-“destined…according to his counsel and will…in Christ”):

“with all wisdom an insight he has made known to us the mystery of his will…that he set forth in Christ” (v.8)

In Ephesians Ch.3 (also see the separate section on Ephesians), we have a comment on Christ’s omniscience again:

The “mystery of Christ” (vv.3:4,9), as “the plan…hidden for ages in God” (v.9), “not formerly made known to humankind” (v.5), “has now been made known to his apostles and prophets…” (v.5), “by revelation” (v.3) “by the Spirit” (v.5) and even to the rulers and authorities in the heavenly places” (v.10). That mystery deals with the way for those that are hitherto unbelievers, “Gentiles”, which means for all the world to avail in God’s “promise”, “in Christ Jesus through the Gospel” (v.6).

PART VI- The Worship of Jesus

Praying to Jesus

Jesus commands a demon “come out of him and never enter him again”, but when his disciples ask him why they could not do the same he replies “this kind can come out only through prayer” (Mt.9:29). Clearly in the scene, Jesus himself does not pray, yet he makes a distinction between him and the disciples.

Here Jesus says “I will do”, in response to the disciples’ prayer: (John 14:13) “Whatever you ask in my name, this I will do, that the Father may be glorified in the Son.” (ESV) (Matt.18:19 Jesus says it will be done “by my Father in Heaven”).

This is a claim of omnipresence “wherever”, as well as of being the recipient of prayers. It should be the obvious that the “gathering” is a prayer gathering: “wherever two or three are gathered in my name I will be there” (Mt.18:20)

Jesus was worshipped during His earthly ministry.

The Old Testament taught against worshiping anyone other than God. If Jesus accepted worship of Himself, this would mean He believed He was divine. Did Jesus receive worship?

There are plenty of examples of persons bowing down and even prostrating to other persons in the Old Testament, including Moses, Elijah and King David, however in all of these, it is quite obvious that the prophet has asked God to perform a miracle, or other similar explicit distinction between the prophet and God. An example is 2Kin.4:36 where the Shunamite woman bows down to Elijah when her son is raised from the dead. Elijah, however has explicitly prayed to God for the miracle in previous verses. Similarly, Joseph’s parents and brothers worshipped him too, however this is in a dream. A dream is only meant to be symbolic, so the symbolism of worship represents Joseph’s suzerainty over his relatives through his high office in the Pharaoh’s court. When his brothers bow down to him at other times it is in the context of their utter destitution in the face famine and the recognitions of Joseph’s power and status over them. It fits perfectly with the context of the story and there is no implication of divinity.

Verses which demonstrate an Attitude of Worship:

In these passages people adopt an attitude of worship toward Jesus. He never prevents this or advises against it. Jesus was the most humble of prophets who who washed his disciples’ feet and did not complain about being executed unfairly. Contrast with the response of others in similar situations, like Peter in Acts:

“On Peter’s arrival Cornelius met him, and falling at his feet, worshiped him. But Peter made him get up, saying, “Stand up; I am only a mortal.” (Acts 10:25,26)

And again “I, John, am the one who heard and saw these things. And when I heard and saw them, I fell down to worship at the feet of the angel who showed them to me; but he said to me, “You must not do that! I am a fellow servant with you and your comrades the prophets, and with those who keep the words of this book. Worship God!” (Rev.22:8,9)

These are the times that persons bowed down to Jesus:

“there was a leper who came to him and knelt before him, saying, “Lord, if you choose, you can make me clean.​” (Mt.8:2)

“A ruler came in and knelt before him.” (Mt. 9:18) Jesus had healed his son.

“A Canaanite woman worshipped Jesus: “she came and knelt before him, saying, ‘Lord, help me.'” (Mt.15:25)

“Then the mother of the sons of Zebedee came up to him with her sons, and kneeling before him she asked him for something.” (Mt. 20:20)

Mark describes a man who was tormented by evil spirits: “when he saw Jesus from afar, he ran and fell down before him.” (Mk.5:6)

“When Mary came where Jesus was and saw him, she knelt at his feet and said to him, “Lord, if you had been here, my brother would not have died.” (John 11:32)

Explicit Worship

A healed blind man worships Jesus when he reveals himself as the “Son of Man”.

“He said, ‘Lord, I believe,’ and he worshipped him.” (Jn. 9:38)

After He walked on water:

“Those in the boat worshipped him, saying, ‘Truly you are the Son of God.'”(Mt. 14:33)

After the resurrection of Jesus, the women worshipped him:

“ Suddenly Jesus met them and said, “Greetings!” And they came to him, took hold of his feet, and worshiped (προσεκύνησαν) him.” (Matthew 28:9)

And later, all of the disciples too:

“when they saw him they worshipped (προσεκύνησαν) him…”(Mt. 28:17a)

Here Jesus is directly quoting (Psalm 8:1,2) “you have set our glory above the heavens out of the mouths of babes and infants”. In doing this, Jesus is equating the praise given him with praising God himself

“But when the chief priests and the scribes saw the amazing things that he did and heard^[d] the children crying out in the temple and saying, “Hosanna to the Son of David,” they became angry and said to him, “Do you hear what these are saying?” Jesus said to them, “Yes; have you never read, ‘Out of the mouths of infants and nursing babies you have prepared praise for yourself’?” (Matt.21:15,16; Lk.19:37-40 has instead “if these were silent even the stones would cry out”, Mk.11:15-19 does not include the exchange with the pharisees)

Finally, we must consider that the adulterous woman performs perhaps the greatest act of adoration of anyone in the Bible and Jesus not only commends her for it, but grants her forgiveness of her sins as related to the repentance shown toward him, when her sins are not directed toward him in the first place. Only God can be offended even though he not be related to the temporal circumstances of sin. He defends her when someone criticizes the act and praises the woman for her great love for him, as greater than that of the others (Lk.7:45).

Worship of Jesus in the Early Church

Evidence of Worship of Jesus in the early Church refers to the time directly after the Resurrection. evidence for this therefore might be sought in the post-Resurrection narratives of the Gospels, but mainly in the book of Acts and the Epistles.

Doxological association of Jesus with the Father

St. Paul equates Jesus and the Father in glory in his prayers as seen in variants on the expression “God the Father and our Lord Jesus Christ” as seen in Gal. 1:3, 1 Cor.1:3, 2:Cor1:2, apart from using the entire trinitarian formula in his prayers as in 2Cor.13:14. When he ascribes attributes, praises and thanksgiving to the Father it is often “through our Lord Jesus” Christ. This is a significant association, because there would never under normal circumstances to associate another with the glories and praises that are the exclusive remit and prerogative of God himself.

In Ephesians 1:12 (below) it might be argued that the object of the praise is God the Father and not Christ, however this is certainly not clear for the syntax- the immediate antecedent is Christ, and an allusion to the fact that our hope is set in him- if our hope for Heaven is said to be set in Christ without mentioning the Father in this verse, then why not also the praise be addressed to him? A stronger argument against the subject being Christ is that Paul never seems write directly with respect to Christ in this manner anywhere else, so there’s nothing to compare it to:

“…we who were first to set our hope in Christ might live for the praise of his Glory” (Ephesians 1:12)

Philippians- The Carmen Christi

“Worship” in the Bible:

It is important not to be lost among all the technical language that gets used in scholarly discussions about “worship” in the Bible, and when it implies the attitude of creaturliness in the face of deity, and making a few basic observations will help tremendously in this regard.

Strong’s Greek: 4352. προσκυνέω (proskuneó) is used 60 times in the NT and is simply defined as “to do reverence to”.

“Worship” in Greek

This section on the three words used for prayer is taken as excerpts from orthodoxchristiantheology.com:

Dulia and Serving God. When the Scriptures refer to the Triune God being served (dulia), we often do not see service being referred to explicitly in a worship context. After all, serving God is not always worship, though it is of course rightfully done. This is why we “serve [dulia] God and” not “money” (Luke 16:13), “serve (dulia) God’s Law” (Rom 7:25), “serve (dulia) Christ” in fastings (Rom 14:18), and “serve (dulia) Him under one yoke” (Zeph 3:9, LXX). In the preceding, it would not make as much sense to use the word latria in any of these contexts as service specifically pertaining to worship does not appear in view in the preceding passages. Hence, the choice of the word dulia and not latria.
However, the preceding is not universally true in the Greek. An act of service (dulia) may also constitute an act of worship, though worship and service remain mutually exclusive. For example, 2 Chron 33:16 in the LXX states: “He built up the altar of the Lord, and offered thereon sacrifices of peace offerings and of thanksgiving, and commanded Judah to serve (dulia) the Lord, the God of Israel.” We can obviously see that what is being spoken of here are liturgical services–the literal nitty, gritty of making sacrifices. Sacrifice is an act of service used for worship. So, dulia may be used in the worship context–it is just not exclusive in its meaning like latria.
Dulia and Serving Other Parties. In the Scriptures, dulia is frequently used in reference to serving people and false gods (LXX, NT). We do have Scriptures where dulia is referred to in a religious context (i.e. “But then, indeed, when you did not know God, you served [dulia] those which by nature are not gods,” Gal 4:8). Yet, because the word dulia simply pertains to an act of service which may or may not be worship-related, it should not surprise us to see dulia used in contexts that are not religious at all (i.e. John 8:33, Rom 9:12, Ex 14:5 LXX).
We also see dulia pertaining to the service of other Christians, and not acts of worship (i.e. Phil 2:22, see also Gal 5:13 1 Tim 6:2). This is not true for a single usage of the term latria in the Scriptures, which mitigates against James White’s conflation of the terms.
…let’s cover passages that explicitly say when we serve (dulia) men we in fact serve (dulia) God Himself:
Bondservants, be obedient to those who are your masters according to the flesh, with fear and trembling, in sincerity of heart, as to Christ…with goodwill doing service (dulia), as to the Lord, and not to men (Eph 6:5, 7).
Bondservants, obey in all things your masters according to the flesh, not with eyeservice, as men-pleasers, but in sincerity of heart, fearing God. And whatever you do, do it heartily, as to the Lord and not to men, knowing that from the Lord you will receive the reward of the inheritance; for you serve (dulia) the Lord Christ (Col 3:22-24).
Clearly, slaves are not being commanded to worship their masters, something that James White’s logic would demand in Eph 6:7 if dulia’s range of meaning was restricted to services that pertain strictly to worshiping God.
Rather, we may surmise that the Scriptural teaching is that when service is given to earthly men in certain situations, it by extension really serves God. This logic is clearly seen in the veneration of the saints, as Saint Jerome writes:
We, it is true, refuse to worship or adore, I say not [only] the relics of the martyrs, but even the sun and moon, the angels and archangels, the Cherubim and Seraphim…For we may not serve the creature rather than the Creator, who is blessed for ever. [Romans 1:25] Still we honour the relics of the martyrs, that we may adore Him whose martyrs they are. We honour the servants that their honour may be reflected upon their Lord who Himself says:— he that receives you receives me [Matthew 10:40] (Letter 109, Paragraph 1).
Proskuneo (Reverence) in the Scriptures. Proskuneo is almost always used to mean “reverentially worship” in the New Testament. For example, Matt 4:10 states, “You shall worship (proskuneo) the Lord and Him alone you shall serve (latria).” The one key exception is Matt 18:26, where a servant falls on his knees (proskuneo) and begs his master to forgive his debt. Jesus in telling this parable was aware that the word commonly meant worship (as it is used throughout the New Testament), but otherwise may be legitimately rendered “prostrated.” We see this translation used in the Old Testament, such as in 1 Sam 20:41. In choosing this word in Matt 18:26 for the slave prostrating to his master, Christ was cluing His listeners that the master was a type for God Himself.”

The Carmen Christi: We discuss this section of Philippians 3 under that chapter.

In Hebrews 1:5-6, God the Father says that all the angels should worship God the Son: “let all God’s angels worship him” in reference to Psalm 97:7.

Cross reference Hebrews 1:11-14 with Psalm 2;7-9, 2 Sam 7:14, Deut 32;43

also Psalm 45:6,7 is referenced here in Heb 1:8,9 in which the addressee of the Psalm is the King to begin with, but then changes to God himself.

We note that the sequence from vv.6-10 Jesus is called both God and Lord as well as that he be worshipped by the angels:
“but of the Son he says (v.8), “…let all God’s angels worship him” (v.6)…”Your Throne O God, is forever and ever (v.8)…”and in the beginning, Lord, you founded the Earth (v10)…”

Heb.1:10-12 is unmistakably referencing Yahweh in Psalms Ps. 102:25-17

“When I saw him, I fell at his feet as though dead. But he laid his right hand upon me, saying…” (Rev.1:17a)

In Rev. 5:8, 12,13 and Colossians 2:6-7, we find that Jesus is worshiped in every way that the Bible specifically describes worship of God the Father, with all the same words used (see: Rev 4:9-11, 5:13; 7:11-12, and Rom 11:33). 

-in the Gospels after the Resurrection.

-in Acts, the Epistles (we have covered most of these already), and the Book of Revelations where Jesus and the Lamb receives worship not only of humans but of heavenly creatures and in union with God the Father. This is definite worship. I will probably not make a thorough compilation of the verses pertaining to this because there would be too many to name.

Belief in God and Christ is equated

“This is eternal life, that you believe in God and in Jesus Christ whom he has sent”

In this rearrangement of 1Jn.4 brings out the implication that God is not testifying to his Son as though he were merely one of many other human beings. Rather, the “three witnesses” (the Spirit of God, the water (likely the event of the Baptism of Christ, where the disciples witnessed and heard divine testimony from on High) and the Blood (likely the event of the death of Christ) are united in testifying to the Son of God, with the strong implication that he is on the contrary not “just another of many humans, rather what is different about him is precisely that eternal life is from in and in having him and believing in him, all of which are divine attributes. The passage is also intensely trinitarian in that the God, through his Spirit’s witness, is testifying to his Son:

“The Spirit is the one that testifies, for the Spirit is truth (v.6)..(there are three that testify, the spirit, the water and the blood, and these three agree-v.7,8)…the testimony of God…(testifying) to his Son…is greater than human testimony (v.9)…believe in God’s testimony…concerning his Son (don’t make his out to be a liar) (v.10)…the eternal life God gave us is in his Son,…in having his Son (v.11)” (1Jn.4:6-11; slightly changed to bring out the meaning)

That God will Come is Prophesied in the OT

Here the origin of the one who is to come is “from of old, from ancient days”.

“But you, O Bethlehem of Ephrathah, who are one of the little clans of Judah, from you shall come forth for me; one who is to rule in Israel, whose origin is from of old, from ancient days. 3 Therefore he shall give them up until the time;  when she who is in labor has brought forth; then the rest of his kindred shall return; to the people of Israel. 4 And he shall stand and feed his flock in the strength of the Lord, in the majesty of the name of the Lord his God. And they shall live secure, for now he shall be great; to the ends of the earth; 5 and he shall be the one of peace.” (Micah 5:1-5)

Here the one who is coming himself is an irresistible judgement for mankind:

See, I am sending my messenger to prepare the way before me, and the Lord whom you seek will suddenly come to his temple. The messenger of the covenant in whom you delight—indeed, he is coming, says the Lord of hosts. 2 But who can endure the day of his coming, and who can stand when he appears?

For he is like a refiner’s fire and like fullers’ soap; 3 he will sit as a refiner and purifier of silver, and he will purify the descendants of Levi and refine them like gold and silver, until they present offerings to the Lord in righteousness.[a] 4 Then the offering of Judah and Jerusalem will be pleasing to the Lord as in the days of old and as in former years.

5 Then I will draw near to you for judgment; I will be swift to bear witness against the sorcerers, against the adulterers, against those who swear falsely, against those who oppress the hired workers in their wages, the widow and the orphan, against those who thrust aside the alien, and do not fear me, says the Lord of hosts.

6 For I the Lord do not change; therefore you, O children of Jacob, have not perished. 7 Ever since the days of your ancestors you have turned aside from my statutes and have not kept them. Return to me, and I will return to you, says the Lord of hosts. But you say, “How shall we return?”

(Malachi 3:1-6)

Isaiah 9:4 Immanuel prophecy (this is defended in a separate article)

Isiaiah 9:6-7 For to us a child is born, to us a son is given, and the government will be on his shoulders. And he will be called Wonderful Counsellor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace. Of the increase of his government and peace there will be no end. He will reign on David’s throne and over his kingdom, establishing and upholding it with justice and righteousness from that time on and forever. …

Zecheriah 2:11″Many nations will be joined with the LORD in that day and will become my people. I will live among you and you will know that the LORD Almighty has sent me to you.

Isaiah 40:3-10, (and fulfilled in Matthew 3:3)

A voice cries out: “In the wilderness prepare the way of the Lord, make straight in the desert a highway for our God. Every valley shall be lifted up, and every mountain and hill be made low;
the uneven ground shall become level, and the rough places a plain. Then the glory of the Lord shall be revealed, and all people shall see it together, for the mouth of the Lord has spoken.”

Jeremiah 23:5-6

The days are surely coming, says the Lord, when I will raise up for David a righteous Branch, and he shall reign as king and deal wisely, and shall execute justice and righteousness in the land. In his days Judah will be saved and Israel will live in safety. And this is the name by which he will be called: ‘The Lord is our righteousness.’(NRSV)

Zephaniah 3:14-17 “The Lord has taken away the judgements against you,  he has turned away your enemies. The king of Israel, the Lord, is in your midst; you shall fear disaster no more. On that day it shall be said to Jerusalem: Do not fear, O Zion; do not let your hands grow weak. The Lord, your God, is in your midst…”

Conclusion

Objections

Some Biblical verses get raised as objections to Jesus’ deity. I’ve addressed some of these under the “Hard Questions” sub-category, as well as under the The Messianic Prophecy of the Bible where I deal with the “God of God” objection.

Each of these sections represent in some way a divine attribute ascribed to Jesus. Loose parallels might of the miraculous might be found in other prophets but as I have pointed out in the relevant sections, not in a manner that implies the divinity of the person. Further in the case of Jesus, ALL of these are found, about a 100 (I haven’t even counted) instances of divine attributes in a single individual, when in all the parallels, they are only present singly. This forms for us a tremendous cumulative case for the true divinity of Jesus.